Final Exam (Florida)
Florida Final Exam Quiz
Prepare yourself for the ultimate challenge with our comprehensive Florida Final Exam quiz! This quiz covers essential insurance concepts, ensuring that you test your understanding and knowledge on crucial topics.
Features include:
- 175 Multiple Choice Questions
- Detailed Explanations
- Immediate Scoring
1. Which of the following potential risks must the policy owner face to have an insurable interest in the individual or property covered by a property insurance policy?
A. Illness
B. Financial loss
C. Physical injury
D. Property damage
2. A general liability policy will respond to claims against an insured when property damage or bodily injury is the result of
A. The negligence of an insured.
B. Acts of God.
C. Chance.
D. The negligence of a third party.
3. Regarding the commercial package policy, an interline endorsement contains provisions that
A. Never apply to all lines of coverage in the package.
Apply to all lines of coverage found in the package.
C. Apply to only one line of coverage found in the package.
D. May apply to more than one line of coverage found in the package.
4. All of the following are optional endorsements that can be added to the standard equipment breakdown coverage form EXCEPT
A. Extra expense.
B. Business interruption.
C. Debris removal.
D. Utility interruption.
5. The defendant that is released on a surety bail bond is known as the
A. Principal.
B. Surety.
C. Obligee.
D. Insured.
6. Which of the following insurance contract elements requires payment of premium?
A. Consideration
B. Legal purpose
C. Competent parties
D. Offer and acceptance
7. What type of risk is wagering on a sporting event?
A. Simple
B. Pure
C. Speculative
D. Calculated
8. A liability policy that offers increased limits and expanded coverage over underlying casualty coverages is known as
A. Umbrella liability.
B. Personal liability.
C. Pro-rata liability.
D. Professional liability.
9. What liability policy sublimit sets the maximum amount an insurer will cover for all claims resulting from a single accident?
A. Aggregate
B. Per occurrence
C. Per person
D. Combined single
10. Two individuals are partners in a local moving company. They own two trucks used to move the property of others. Which of the following policies should they use to insure their trucks?
A. Personal auto policy
B. Garage liability coverage form
C. Commercial auto fleet policy
D. Business auto policy
11. For an extra premium, the extended coverages written on the basic form dwelling policy would pay for which of the following?
A. Glass breakage
B. Fire
C. Riot
D. Vandalism
12. What statement must an insurance provider recieve before it pays benefits for a loss?
A. Loss verification
B. Proof of inspection
C. Loss estimation
D. Proof of loss
13. All of the following liability coverages are automatically included in the businessowners liability coverage EXCEPT
A. Host liquor.
B. Product.
C. Pollution.
D. Contractual.
15. Under the personal auto policy, what coverage must an insured have for an insurer to cover transportation expenses after a vehicle sustains damage resulting from a collision?
A. Uninsured motorist property damage
B. Supplementary payments
C. Other-than-collision coverage
D. Collision coverage
16. Which number is the maximum amount that would be payable in the event of damage to an individual’s property in a liability policy with split limits of 25/50/25?
A. The amount of all three numbers, $100,000
B. The amount of the first number, $25,000
C. The amount of the second number, $50,000
D. The amount of the third number, $25,000
17. In which of the following circumstances will the Second Injury Fund pay the benefits?
A. Workers compensation benefits for an employee who has been injured while working for a previous employer, in case injury would occur again
B. An employee with a prior injury sustains a second injury that causes the disability to be more serious
C. The same injury occurs to a different individual
D. An individual is injured twice in the same year, provided neither injury impacts the other injury
18. What is an unplanned and sudden event not under the insured’s control, resulting in injury or damage that is neither expected nor intended?
A. Hazard
B. Accident
C. Burglary
D. Peril
19. Which of the following conditions lets the insurance provider examine the insured’s records at the end of a policy term to ensure a sufficient fee is being collected for the exposure?
A. Excess Liability Evaluation
B. Deposit Premium Audit
C. Insurable Interest Evaluation
D. Underwriting
20. Regarding surety bonds, which of the following statements is true?
A. The purpose of the surety bond is to guarantee that certain obligations or duties will be fulfilled
B. A surety bond is called third-party guarantee insurance since it involves three parties
C. The principal is the named beneficiary of the surety bond holder
D. The individual who promises to fulfill the bond’s obligation is called the obligee
21. The two types of compensatory damages are
A. Special and punitive.
B. Special and general.
C. Punitive and reward.
D. Unique and general.
22. The DP-3 form provides what kind of coverage?
A. Basic peril
B. Named peril
C. Broad peril
D. Open peril
23. What type of loss occurs if a fire breaks out in the kitchen and spreads upstairs to one of the bedrooms where the fire destroyed some furniture?
A. Proximate
B. Direct
C. Indirect
D. Consequential
24. In a homeowners policy, the declarations section provides all of the following information EXCEPT
A. Insured locations.
B. Policy exclusions.
C. Basic underwriting information.
D. The amount of deductible that is applied to a loss.
25. A policy owner has extended coverage on his dwelling that includes coverage for malicious mischief and vandalism. One night, he is sitting in his living room when he hears a crash and the sound of glass breaking. He runs to the door and discovers a brick has been thrown through his glass door. He fills out a form detailing the events leading to the loss to inform his insurance provider of a possible claim. What is this form called?
A. Notice of claim form
B. Appraisal form
C. Proof of loss form
D. Mortgagee rights form
26. What must be deducted from the current replacement cost to determine the actual cash value of an insured property?
A. Agreed value
B. Stated value
C. Fair market value
D. Depreciated value
27. The home of an insured catches on fire. Consequently, the insured’s family has to stay in a motel until the home’s repairs are finished. The cost of the motel stay is a
A. Consequential loss.
B. Resulting loss.
C. Direct loss.
D. Negligent loss.
28. How does insurance distribute the financial consequences of individual losses?
A. It transfers the risk to every insured individual
B. It retains the financial consequences
C. It transfers the risk to the insured’s associates
D. It transfers the risk to a small number of insured individuals
29. When an insurance provider covers the cost to exchange damaged property with new property of like kind and quality, it is called
A. Stated amount.
B. Replacement cost.
C. Actual Cash Value.
D. Market Value
30. The garage coverage form is written to manage the insurance needs of an insured in the business of servicing, repairing, selling, or storing automobiles. In a garage policy, which of the following coverages is NOT included?
A. Professional Liability
B. Auto Liability
C. Premise and operation Liability
D. Product Liability
31. A policy owner has a personal umbrella with a $2,000 self-insured retention (SIR). How much would the umbrella cover after a $12,000 personal injury liability claim, assuming no other policy is involved?
A. $1,000
B. $10,000
C. $12,000
D. $2,000
32. In an insurance application, answers to questions are called representations, which are
A. Warranties.
B. Believed to be true to the best of the applicant’s knowledge.
C. Absolutely True.
D. Not True
33. The direct, exact, uninterrupted cause of loss is called the
A. Actual cause.
B. Intervening cause.
C. Absolute cause.
D. Proximate Cause
34. Which action constitutes acceptance if an applicant for insurance submits the initial premium with an application?
A. The agent delivers the policy
B. The insurer receives the application and initial premium
C. The underwriters approve the application
D. The applicant submits a statement of good health
35. Because of appreciation, the insurance amount on a business is less than 80% of its actual value on the date the loss occurs. Which of the following is true?
A. The policy owner is responsible for twice the deductible amount
B. The coinsurance penalty is applied
C. The policy pays nothing
D. The total amount of the loss minus any deductible is paid
36. Using the pro rata method, if a property is insured by Carrier A for $20,000 and Carrier B covers the same property for $40,000, how much of a $24,000 loss will Carrier A cover?
A. $20,000
B. $12,000
C. $8,000
D. $0
37. In a commercial package policy (CPP), which of the following is NOT a coverage component?
A. Commercial property
B. General liability
C. Commercial auto
D. Fire legal liability
38. To begin coverage before a policy is issued, insurance providers can issue a/an
A. Indemnity certificate.
B. Uninsured motorist coverage.
C. Binder.
D. Coverage authorization.
39. A policy owner was having a new home built. While digging the footings for the foundation, the contractor struck a solid rock formation and determined that it was necessary to blast the formation to remove the rocks. In a neighbor’s home several blocks away, the force of the blast broke several windows and some chinaware. Who covers this damage?
A. The contractor
B. The neighbor’s insurance provider
C. The insured’s insurance provider if the neighbor proves the insured’s negligence
D. The insured’s insurance provider, regardless of negligence
40. Under workers compensation statutes, medical benefits are provided
A. For up to $100,000 per injury or disease.
B. Without limit.
C. For up to $500,000 per disease or injury.
D. For a certain percentage of the annual income of a worker. #45. A provision contained in most claims-made liability policy forms that provide a stated period after the policy expiration, during which policy owners can make claims
41. Under the HO-3 form, a house is insured for $200,000. Last week, the owner purchased a new home and began to move her personal property to the new residence. Last night, vandals did $8,000 of damage to the property that had been moved to her new place. Overlooking any deductible, how much will the HO-3 cover?
A. $0
B. $1,000
C. $4,000
D. $8,000
42. In a commercial property policy, all of the following are specific items of property not covered EXCEPT
A. Property or contraband during illegal trade or transportation.
B. Bullion and money.
C. Watercraft while afloat.
D. Business personal property within 100 feet of the premises.
43. A liability policy that offers coverage for an injury or damage claim only if the claim is first reported or filed against the insured during the policy period is known as the
A. Bodily injury/property damage form.
B. Occurrence form.
C. Premises coverage.
D. Claims-made form.
44. Typically, a sworn statement has to be provided by the insured to an insurance company and must include information about the occurrence and the amount of indemnity claimed?
A. Date and description
B. Category
C. Extremity
D. Type and frequency
45. A provision contained in most claims-made liability policy forms that provide a stated period after the policy expiration, during which policy owners can make claims resulting from occurrences during the policy period at no additional cost, is known as the
A. Basic extended reporting period.
B. Extension of coverage.
C. Supplemental extended reporting period.
D. Grace period.
46. Under the employee theft coverage, when a covered employee is found to have participated in a dishonest act, the coverage for that employee will end
A. On the anniversary of the bond.
B. Upon employee's conviction.
C. Immediately.
D. In 30 days.
47. Regarding insurable interest, which of these is NOT an element of insurable risk?
A. Business
B. Personal
C. Blood
D. Financial
48. When an insured and insurer could not agree on the liability loss amount after her accident, the settlement was submitted to a person whose decision was binding on both parties. What condition did the insured use?
A. Third party
B. Arbitration
C. Appraisal
D. Fair value
49. Concerning the cancellation provision of a commercial insurance policy, all of the following are true EXCEPT
A. The insured can cancel the policy at any time by mailing or delivering written notice of cancellation to the insurance provider.
B. The insurance provider must provide proof that the insured received the cancellation notice before canceling the policy.
C. The insurance provider must give the insured advance notice of its intended cancellation.
D. The insurance provider can cancel the policy by mailing or delivering written notice of cancellation to the first named insured.
50. A corporate executive is accused of sexual harassment. What type of coverage would respond to this scenario?
A. Commercial general liability (CGL)
B. Employment practice liability
C. Workers compensation
D. Hiring Practice liability
51. In a workers compensation policy, the other states’ insurance section offers coverage
A. Only for incidental operations occurring in other states.
B. For any other states in which the insure can operate.
C. Only for those other states in which the insure can operate.
D. For new operation in other state, if reported to the insurance provider within 60 days.
52. A structure that no one inhabits and where no property is stored is deemed
A. Unoccupied
B. Empty.
C. Derelict.
D. Vacant
53. Which of the following describes an insurer’s responsibility for payment under a policy, as stated in the common policy provisions?
A. Premiums
B. Limits of liability
C. Consideration
D. Utmost good faith
54. The federal act that gave more favorable benefits for interstate railroad workers by permitting the injured worker to sue their employer for negligence is the
A. Jones Act.
B. Federal Employers Liability Act (FELA).
C. U.S. Longshore and Harbor Workers Compensation Act.
D. Federal Black Lung Compensation Act.
55. Which of the following entities qualifies for a businessowners policy?
A. Manufacturing operations
B. Convenience stores
C. Places of amusement
D. Automobile sales and servicing operations
56. Statistical probabilities of loss for a specific class of insureds are best predicted when the insured group is
A. Larger.
B. Diverse.
C. Older.
D. Smaller.
57. An insured is injured while driving her own vehicle. Which of the following coverages will cover the loss?
A. Part A - Liability
B. Part B - Medical Payments
C. Part C - Uninsured Motorist Payments
D. Part D – Damage to Your Auto
58. Under a personal auto policy, an insured has $5,000 of medical coverage at the time of a covered accident. The insured and three passengers were injured in the accident. The insured’s medical expenses totaled $8,000. The first passenger incurred $4,000, the second passenger incurred $6,500, and the third passenger incurred $1,200. Under the medical payment coverage, how much will the policy pay?
A. $5,000
B. $8,000
C. $15,200
D. $19,700
59. On the part of an insurance provider, which of the following is the consideration?
A. Decreasing premium amounts
B. Paying the premium
C. Underwriting
D. Paying a claim
60. Financially restoring an insured after a claim is called
A. Adhesion.
B. Restoration.
C. Reasonable expectations.
D. Indemnity.
61. In which of these circumstances would a homeowners policy cover a detached garage?
A. It is used to hold cosmetics demonstrations
B. It is used as a private garage by a tenant
C. It is rented to someone for a woodworking business
D. It is rented to a scientist for a research lab
62. In a personal auto policy (PAP), which of these would be covered by the medical payments coverage?
A. A policyholder falls while water-skiing and is struck by a boat
B. A runaway shopping cart in a grocery store parking lot knocks a policyholder down, breaking an arm
C. A policyholder trips over the curb while crossing the street and sprains an ankle.
D. A policyholder slams a finger in a car door while getting in, breaking the finger
63. Under Part B – Medical Payments of a personal auto policy, all of the following will be considered the insured EXCEPT
A. The named insured after being struck by a motor vehicle as a pedestrian.
B. An individual using the insured’s covered auto without permission.
C. The named insured’s spouse.
D. An individual occupying a covered auto.
64. A single property insurance policy that can provide coverage for one or more classes of property at multiple locations, or multiple classes of property at one location, with one total coverage amount and no single item assigned a specific coverage amount, is known as
A. Reporting form insurance.
B. Group property insurance.
C. Block insurance.
D. Blanket insurance.
65. The commercial crime coverage that covers losses caused by the theft of money, securities, and other property by an employee is
A. Inside the premises - theft of money and securities.
B. Employee theft.
C. Funds transfer fraud.
D. Forgery or alteration.
66. In an Inland Marine policy, under the Garment Contractor Floater, coverage while the property is in transit between the insured and the subcontractor is typically written on which basis?
A. Unnamed perils
B. All-risk
C. Unfiled
D. Named perils
67. In a Commercial Auto policy, under the Physical Damage Coverage Form, how much will an insurance provider pay to replace or repair a covered vehicle?
A. The greater of the replacement cost value of the cost to replace or repair a covered vehicle.
B. The lesser of the actual cash value (ACV) or the cost to replace or repair a covered vehicle.
C. The greater of the actual cash value (ACV) or the cost to replace vehicle
D. The Lesser of the replacement cost value or the cost to replace or repair a covered vehicle
68. A corporation is insured under a commercial general liability (CGL) policy. It is named in a lawsuit to recover expenses for bodily injury and property damages from a claim. The insurer must provide coverage for all of the following named in the suit EXCEPT
A. Spouses of stockholders and officers.
B. Officers of the corporation.
C. Stockholders.
D. Employees of the corporation.
69. Insureds covered by a Mobile Homeowners Policy move their mobile home to prevent it from being damaged by a fire. What is the maximum amount the policy will pay for this?
A. $350
B. $500
C. $1,000
D. $5,000
70. Which of the following property types is NOT moveable?
A. Transferable property
B. Fixed property
C. Real property
D. Firm property
71. A policy owner’s gardener was spraying weeds on his lawn. He did not notice the wind drifting the spray into the neighbor’s yard, where he had damaged their flower bed. The policy owner was found to be legally liable for this damage. This is an example of
A. Gross negligence.
B. Vicarious liability.
C. Intervening cause.
D. Comparative negligence.
72. The businessowners policy (BOP) extension coverage form for personal property off-premises is limited to
A. $2,500
B. $5,000
C. $10,000
D. 15,000
73. An insurance provider’s right to take possession of the property after paying for the loss is known as the right to
A. Exchange.
B. Retain.
C. Replace.
D. Salvage.
74. The physical damage section of the business auto policy provides coverage for physical damage. All of the following are the types of physical damage coverage that can be selected EXCEPT
A. Collision coverage.
B. Limited peril coverage.
C. Specified causes of loss coverage.
D. Comprehensive coverage.
75. Which of these statements does NOT describe an endorsement?
A. Endorsements can only add coverage to a current policy, not remove it
B. Endorsements can be attached during the policy term
C. Endorsements are printed addenda added to a policy
D. Endorsements have to be signed by an executive officer
76. On which of the following is the occurrence form trigger based?
A. The date when damage or injury takes place
B. The place where the damage or injury takes place
B. The amount of the insured’s deductible
D. The number of claims made during the policy period
77. Loss valuation is best described as the process of
A. Accepting or denying coverage based on an applicant’s historical evidence of property losses.
B. Calculating the premium charged and the amount of insurance required on a particular property.
C. Providing equal benefits for a wide range of covered properties.
D. Defining property replacement costs in relation to other insurance providers’ costs of the same type.
78. An insurance policy must have all of the following to be valid EXCEPT
A. Countersignature.
B. Acceptance.
C. Consideration.
D. Offer.
79. How does it affect the policy premium if an insurance policy includes the additional coverage provision?
A. The premium will be recalculated when a specific loss covered by this provision takes place
B. Additional premiums will be levied
C. The premium will be calculated on a pro rata basis based on the additional coverage amount
D. There is no additional premium
80. Business auto coverages apply only to vehicles identified as covered autos in the Declarations by the appropriate numerical symbol. Which symbol provides the broadest coverage?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 7
D. 9
81. On a certificate of insurance, which of the following is listed?
A. The types and amounts of insurance
B. The terms and conditions of the insurance
C. The amount and cost of insurance
D. The types and cost of insurance
82. The personal property off-premises extension found in dwelling forms offers limits of coverage up to
A. 10% of Coverage A anywhere worldwide.
B. 10% of Coverage C anywhere in the United States or Canada.
C. 10% of Coverage C anywhere worldwide.
D. 10% of Coverage A anywhere in the United States or Canada.
83. An insured just obtained an auto policy for her new car. She wants to know what perils are not covered. Which section of the policy should she check?
A. Exclusions
B. Insuring agreement
C. Declarations
D. Definitions
84. In the commercial property policy, the broad cause of loss form contains three perils and the basic form perils. Which of these is NOT one of the three perils found in the policy?
A. Water damage
B. Weight of snow, sleet, or ice
C. Falling objects
D. Utility services
85. Concerning the automatic increase in an insurance endorsement in dwelling policies, which of the following is NOT true?
A. It is optional
B. It protects against inflation
C. It does not require an added premium
D. It increases the amount of coverage by an annual percentage
86. An insurance policy form that describes specifically covered perils extends what type of coverage?
A. Open peril
B. Special peril
C. Blanket
D. Named peril
87. The Fair Credit Reporting Act seeks to
A. Ensure coverage for every applicant.
B. Protect consumers against the circulation of obsolete or inaccurate financial or personal information.
C. Protect the insurance company from adverse selection.
D. Ensure consumers receive a copy of the investigative consumer reports.
88. In a personal auto policy (PAP), a covered auto includes all of the following EXCEPT
A. A non-owned temporary substitute vehicle.
B. A van used in the delivery business.
C. A trailer owned by the insured.
D. A farm implement that is towed behind the insured’s pickup.
89. Under a property policy, which of the following would be added for coverage by an endorsement?
A. All insureds
B. Named insured
C. First named insured
D. Additional insureds
90. A trucking company has a $1 million umbrella policy. The businessowner agrees to carry a 200/500/100 limit on auto liability and a personal liability of $400,000. Following a car accident, the business is sued. A single injured party is awarded injuries of $300,000. In actuality, the trucking company only maintained a 100/250/50 auto liability limit. What is the total amount the umbrella policy will cover?
A. $50,000
B. $100,000
C. $200,000
D. $300,000
91. Which of these refers to the termination of a policy at its expiration date by not offering a policy replacement or continuation?
A. Cessation
B. Cancellation
C. Nonrenewal
D. Suspension
92. Which of these refers to the termination of a policy at its expiration date by not offering a policy replacement or continuation?
A. Assignment.
B. Rescission
C. Subrogation.
D. Liability.
93. Which valuation method considers what a willing buyer would pay for an insured property?
A. Functional replacement value
B. Market value
C. Replacement value
D. Actual cost value
94. All of the following are excluded by the limited theft endorsement designed for a landlord EXCEPT
A. A lawnmower owned by the landlord and kept at the rented premises.
B. Stolen jewelry from the landlord’s home.
C. Stolen money from the tenant’s apartment.
D. Stolen silverware from the landlord’s china cabinet.
95. Which of the following is NOT included in a commercial package policy’s common policy declarations?
A. Amount of premium for each coverage part
B. Policy number
C. Insuring agreement
D. Schedule of coverage parts
96. A policy owner’s limit of liability applies to total damages for bodily injury and property damage caused by one accident. This limit can be used in any combination of amounts, not to exceed the single limit. This policy owner has what type of limit?
A. Per occurrence
B. Combined single
C. Split
D. Aggregate
97. What is the main difference between occurrence and claims-made liability policies?
A. Property
B. Tort
C. Liability
D. Trigger
98. Upon payment for a loss, the insured must surrender to the insurance provider the right to sue a negligent third party. This requirement is known as
A. Subrogation.
B. Indemnity.
C. Insurable interest.
D. Entirety.
99. For there to be a direct liability, all of the following must exist EXCEPT
A. There must have been an unbroken chain of events, starting with the negligence and leading to the damage or injury.
B. Under the circumstances, a legal duty to act or not to act.
C. Proximate cause between the wrong and the damage or injury.
D. A reasonable expectation that the act can result in damage or injury.
100. Which part of the insurance policy explains the terms found throughout the policy?
A. Conditions
B. Insuring agreement
C. Declarations
D. Definitions
101. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the additional debris removal coverage under the builders risk coverage form?
A. The debris of covered property has to be reported in writing within 270 days of the loss
B. The insured’s limit of liability is 25% of the sum of the direct loss payment in addition to the deductible amount
C. It covers removing or cleaning pollutants from land or water
D. It pays to remove the debris of an insured’s damaged auto
102. A person just applied for National Flood Insurance. How many days can that individual expect to wait before coverage becomes effective?
A. 20
B. 30
C. 45
D. 60
103. Policy limits are the maximum amount an insured can collect or for which a policy owner is protected under the terms of the
A. Conditional receipt.
B. Application.
C. Policy.
D. Insuring agreement.
104. What term includes losses resulting from repeated or continuous exposure to conditions resulting in injury to individuals or damage to property that is neither expected nor intended?
A. Accident
B. Incident
C. Additional Coverage
D. Occurrence
105. Under a dwelling policy, which of the following is covered?
A. Freezing plumbing systems
B. Flood or surface water
C. Structures used for commercial manufacturing purposes
D. Fire resulting from an earthquake
106. What guarantees that the information detailed in the insurance contract is true?
A. A warranty
B. A representation
C. Utmost good faith
D. A binder
107. Garagekeepers insurance offers coverage for the insured’s liability for
A. Damage to any vehicle borrowed from a partner or employee.
B. Physical damage to the insured’s covered auto.
C. Bodily injury caused by the use of a covered auto.
D. Damage to vehicles left in the insured’s care for repairs.
108. Which of the following defines the procedure that insurance companies and insureds can use when they cannot agree on the value of a loss?
A. Subrogation clause
B. Fair value clause
C. Appraisal clause
D. Loss settlement clause
109. In the dwelling policy, fair rental value coverage is similar to which homeowners policy form?
A. Loss of use
B. Dwelling
C. Structure
D. Contents
110. How is the premium paid for the businessowners policy?
A. Itemized premium
B. Pro rata liability premium
C. Separate premium for property and for liability
D. One indivisible premium
111. Which documents inform the insurance provider of events that can lead to a possible claim?
A. Appraisal statement
B. Notice of claim
C. Subrogative statement
D. Binder
112. Health Maintenance Organizations are known as what type of plans?
A. Consumer-driven
B. Reimbursement
C. Service
D. Health savings
113. When can insureds obtain insurance through a surplus lines insurer?
A. When they cannot obtain insurance through an authorized insurer
B. When the insurance is significantly cheaper with the surplus lines insurer
C. When insureds have been denied basic insurance from at least three authorized insurers
D. When their insurance provider becomes insolvent
114. The Florida Automobile Joint Underwriting Association (FAJUA) was developed to provide
A. Coverage for all Florida residents.
B. Coverage for businesses unable to secure coverage in the voluntary market.
C. Coverage for individuals who do not qualify for automobile insurance.
D. Coverage for individuals unable to secure coverage in the voluntary market but otherwise qualify for automobile insurance.
115. When a person obtains an insurance license for primarily writing insurance on themselves or for members of their immediate family or business, this is known as
A. Rebating.
B. Self-insurance
C. Controlled business
D. Personal insurance.
116. For hurricane coverage, the duration of a hurricane ends how long after the termination of the previous hurricane watch or warning issued for any part of the state of Florida?
A. 12 hours
B. 24 hours
C. 48 hours
D. 72 hours
117. A producer likes to add additional coverages to the policies of applicants and charge them for such coverages without their knowledge. The producer is guilty of
A. Defamation.
B. Sliding.
C. Misrepresentation.
D. Rebating.
118. An insurance provider that operates for one or more charitable, social, benevolent, educational, or religious purposes for the benefit of its members is called a
A. Fraternal insurer.
B. Mutual insurer.
C. Reciprocal insurer.
D. Stock insurer
119. When canceling a policy because of nonpayment of premium, the insurance provider has to mail or deliver notice to the insured how many days before the effective date of cancellation?
A. No notice is required
B. 10 days
C. 45 days
D. 35 days
120. An applicant for a single life insurance producer’s license has to complete a minimum of how many hours of pre- licensing education?
A. 18
B. 20
C. 30
D. 40
121. All of the following perils are covered in aircraft hull coverage while the aircraft is in flight EXCEPT
A. Explosion.
B. Collision.
C. Fire.
D. Lightning.
122. A producer who willingly misrepresents material information to induce an insured to forfeit, lapse, surrender, or change a life insurance policy or annuity has committed an illegal practice called
A. Misrepresentation.
B. Twisting.
C. Fraud.
D. Concealment.
123. Medicare is a health insurance program for all the following individuals EXCEPT
A. Individuals with low income and low assets.
B. Individuals 65 or over.
C. Individuals with permanent kidney failure.
D. Individuals who have been on Social Security Disability for two years.
124. According to Florida state law, coverage under a condominium unit owner’s residential property policy (HO-6) has to contain property loss assessment coverage of at least
A. $1,000.
B. $2,000.
C. $5,000.
D. $10,000.
125. Regarding the Florida Workers Compensation Joint Underwriting Association (FWCJUA), who would be assigned to Subplan C?
A. There is no Subplan C
B. All insureds who meet three conditions: 1) annual premium not to exceed $2,500; 2) no loss-of-time claims in the prior two years; 3) medical-only claims in the prior two years have not exceeded 50% of the premiums for those years
C. Employers named explicitly by the Board of Governors as performing high-risk operations
D. All insureds not eligible for subplans A, B, or D
126. How long does the law require producers to maintain transaction records of premium payments?
A. Two years
B. Three years
C. Four years
D. Five years
127. Two individuals of the same age, health status, and life expectancy apply for insurance coverage. When the same insurance company issues the policies, the premium rates differ based on the insured’s race. This differentiation describes the practice of
A. Defamation.
B. Negligent underwriting.
C. Misrepresentation.
D. Unfair discrimination.
128. An insurer who conducts insurance business in this state but whose articles of incorporation are registered in Canada is what type of insurer?
A. Foreign
B. Alien
C. Unauthorized
D. Surplus lines
129. If a driver age 55 or older completes an accident prevention course, they can be eligible for a premium reduction for a maximum period of
A. One year.
B. Two years.
C. Three years.
D. Five years.
129. If a driver age 55 or older completes an accident prevention course, they can be eligible for a premium reduction for a maximum period of
A. One year.
B. Two years.
C. Three years.
D. Five years.
130. An individual LTC policy cannot be issued until the insurer has received from the applicant a written designation of at least
A. One individual
B. Two individuals.
C. Three individuals.
D. Four individuals.
131. A producer advises an insured to replace their life insurance policy with another similar one. However, the producer advises this for the sole purpose of making a commission. What violation has the producer committed?
A. Twisting
B. Replacement fraud
C. Churning
D. False advertising
132. A Medicare supplement policy is required to have a free-look period of at least
A. 10 days.
B. 15 days.
C. 30 days.
D. 45 days.
133. Losses caused by all of the following perils would be covered under flood insurance EXCEPT
A. Runoff of surface waters
B. Tidal waves
C. Mudflow
D. Sewer backup
134. What is the gatekeeper’s purpose in a Health Maintenance Organization (HMO)?
A. Ensuring that services are properly prepaid
B. Controlling costs
C. Ensuring that patients do not go to physicians outside of the HMO’s region
D. Establishing vital preventive care
135. Premiums collected on behalf of the insurer by an agent will be held in what capacity?
A. Security
B. Rebate
C. Fiduciary
D. Debit
136. An agent is charged with committing a crime in another state and receives a 1- year prison sentence. Who must report the charges to the Florida Department of Insurance?
A. The agent
B. The court
C. The state police
D. The charges do not need to be reported because the crime was committed in another state
137. An example of an alien insurer transacting business in this state is one formed under the laws of
A. Arizona.
B. Puerto Rico.
C. Mexico.
D. District of Columbia.
138. The Citizens Property Insurance Corporation covers the perils of
A. Hail and fire only.
B. Windstorm and hail only.
C. Windstorm, hail, and fire.
D. The same perils covered by homeowners insurance. #134. What is the gatekeeper’s purpose in a
139. The statutory law defense that lessens injury and awards for proportionate damages when the plaintiff and defendant are both responsible is known as
A. Comparative negligence.
B. Assumption of risk.
C. Intervening cause.
D. Contributory negligence.
140. The Uniform Mandatory Provision that prevents an insurer from altering its agreement with a policy owner by referring to items not found in the policy is the
A. Reinstatement provision.
B. Entire contract provision.
C. Legal action provision.
D. Grace period provision.
141. Failing to acknowledge and act promptly upon receiving communications regarding an insurance claim violates what insurance regulation?
A. Ethics
B. Solicitation and marketing
C. Unfair claims settlement
D. Replacement of policies
142. When must an insurance provider furnish proof of loss forms to an insured?
A. Upon receiving a phone call from an individual who wants to submit a claim
B. Within ten days of receiving a report of a covered loss
C. Upon receiving a written request from an individual who wants to submit a claim
D. Within 30 days of receiving a report of a covered loss
143. Rating schedules, rates, and manuals filed with the Office of Insurance Regulation for review at least 90 days before the proposed effective date are known as
A. Filed and approved.
B. File and use.
C. Use and file.
D. Reviewed and approved.
144. Individuals in Florida who own a self- propelled vehicle with four or more wheels registered and licensed in the state must have continuous insurance with a minimum of $10,000 of personal injury protection (PIP) and $10,000 of property damage liability (PDL). This requirement applies to non-residents who own and operate a vehicle and reside in Florida at least ________ of the year.
A. 40%
B. 90 days
C. 6 months
D. 180 continuous days
145. After a request for mediation is made, a mediation conference is required to be
A. Held within 10 days.
B. Held within 30 days.
C. Held within 45 days.
D. Held within 60 days.
146. In the state of Florida, the cost of mediation is paid by
A. The party who requested the mediation.
B. The Department of Insurance.
C. An assigned risk pool.
D. Both parties.
147. Instead of assessing service charges for premium financing, an insurance producer can charge, on any unpaid balance, an annual interest rate of up to
A. 12%.
B. 16%
C. 18%
D. 36%
148. What does the covered employee receive when enrolled in employer group health insurance?
A. Nothing
B. The master contract
C. A conditional receipt
D. A certificate of insurance
149. If a producer wants to represent more than one insurance company, which of the following will be true?
A. No appointments are required
B. The producer has to be appointed by each insurance company
C. The producer only needs one appointment from the largest insurance company
D. The producer has to receive one multiline appointment from the Department
150. How many days before writing limited sinkhole coverage must an insurance provider inform the Florida Office of Insurance Regulation?
A. 10 days
B. 20 days
C. 30 days
D. 60 days
151. Which of the following is a limit of liability offered as a combined single limit of coverage for all property damage and bodily injury to passengers and nonpassengers of an aircraft?
A. Sleek limit
B. Smooth limit
C. Sublimit
D. Continuous limit
152. An insurance producer visits a prospective customer and explains the various types of policies. The client shows a lack of interest, so the producer guarantees higher dividends than they know would be possible. Which of the following terms describe what the producer has done?
A. Twisting
B. Defamation
C. Misrepresentation
D. Rebating
153. Which of the following situations best describes a rebate?
A. An agent selling insurance mainly to herself, her friends, and her family
B. An agent returning part of his commission to his client as an inducement to purchase
C. An agent misrepresenting a policy’s provisions or coverages at issue
D. An agent requiring an insured to obtain insurance from him as a condition of a loan
154. Which of the following entities is regarded as the principal?
A. The director of the insurance provider
B. The head of the Department of Insurance
C. The insurance provider issuing a policy
D. The agent or producer soliciting the policy
155. Before issuing insurance coverage for sinkhole losses, an insurer can require
A. A listing of prior property owners.
B. An inspection of the property.
C. A listing of prior property insurance claims.
D. A waiting period of no more than six months.
156. The Florida Automotive Joint Underwriting Association offers coverage to individuals who cannot obtain it through the voluntary market but otherwise qualify for auto insurance with a valid driver’s license. Who must participate in this plan?
A. All self-insurers
B. All insurance providers authorized to write auto insurance, except for self-insurers
C. All insurance providers authorized to write auto insurance
D. All insurance providers authorized to write any insurance
157. Coverage is provided for all of the following under the Boiler and Machinery Coverage Form EXCEPT
A. Damage to the property of others in the care and custody of the insured.
B. Bodily injury liability.
C. Expediting expenses after a covered loss.
D. Damage to the insured’s property.
158. How many hours of continuing education must a producer licensed for less than six years complete every two years?
A. 15
B. 18
C. 24
D. 25
159. Which of the following would be required to become a licensed insurance producer?
A. An individual whose activities are limited to insurance advertising
B. An officer of an insurance provider who does not receive commissions
C. A customer service representative who solicits no more than one policy every year
D. An agency supervisor whose actions do not include selling insurance
160. Which of the following is NOT an example of the insurance provider’s location of incorporation?
A. Alien
B. Authorized
C. Domestic
D. Foreign
161. Once the agent has a producer agreement with the FWCJUA, the prescribed applications can be submitted with the required deposit premiums. Coverage becomes bound at 12:01 AM after the date of receipt at the FWCJUA. The employer then receives __________, confirming the servicing carrier assigned the application.
A. A confirmation receipt
B. A 10-day binder
C. A premium refund
D. A 30-day binder
162. If an insurer appoints a customer representative, the appointment needs to be filed with which of the following entities?
A. The Department
B. None; only agents and adjuster appointments have to be reported
C. The Guaranty Association
D. The National Association of Insurance Commissioners (NAIC)
163. When an insured reinstated their major medical policy, they were involved in an accident that required hospitalization. Upon reinstatement of the policy, when would this accident be covered?
A. It would not be covered
B. Immediately
C. After 10 days
D. After 31 days
164. Which of the following meets the insured’s personal needs and is provided by nonmedical personnel?
A. Skilled care
B. Assisted living
C. Intermediate care
D. Custodial care
165. Which of the following is a licensee able to write insurance business with unauthorized insurers?
A. Mutual insurer
B. Managing general agent
C. Reinsurance broker
D. Surplus lines broker
166. Under which legal defense is there an allocation of damages based upon the degree of fault of each of the plaintiffs and the defendant?
A. Absolute liability
B. Contributory negligence
C. Comparative negligence
D. Intervening cause
167. Producers can be found guilty of defamation if they make false statements that are designed to
A. Misinform prospective clients about a policy’s coverage.
B. Misrepresent the benefits payable under a policy.
C. Maliciously criticize another insurer.
D. Deceive a policy owner.
168. If a licensee changes their address, they must notify the Department within how many days?
A. 10
B. 15
C. 30
D. 90
169. In Florida, when mediation is requested as part of the dispute resolution procedure for settling claims, mediators are
A. Selected by the insurance provider.
B. Randomly selected by the Department of Insurance.
C. Chosen by both parties to the mediation conference from an established pool.
D. Elected during biennial elections.
170. A producer tells an insured that if she replaces her current policy with a newer one, dividends will be higher, and the premiums will be slightly lower. However, the policy would not offer either one of these things. What type of misrepresentation is being committed?
A. Replacement
B. Twisting
C. Rebating
D. Distorting
171. Which of these is correct regarding a fraternal benefit society?
A. It sells insurance, but its representatives do not have to be licensed
B. It operates for the benefit of its members
C. It is open only to men
D. It is open to anyone
172. Which of these periods is the general enrollment period for Medicare Part B?
A. March 1 through May 31 every year
B. January 1 through January 31 every year
C. March 1 through March 31 every year
D. January 1 through March 31 every year
173. An insured has not paid the premium on her property policy. It is well past the premium due date and grace period. The insurance provider decides to cancel the insured’s policy for nonpayment of the premium. How much notice does the insurance provider have to give the insured before the cancellation?
A. 10 days
B. 20 days
C. 45 days
D. 90 days
174. Producers in Florida are promptly required to report all of the following to the Department EXCEPT
A. Change in marital status.
B. Change of address.
C. Administrative actions.
D. Use of assumed names.
175. Which of the following best defines the unfair trade practice of rebating?
A. Making false statements that are maliciously critical and intended to injure another person in the business of insurance
B. Offering an inducement of something of value not stated in the policy
C. Making statements that misrepresent an insurance policy to induce an insured to replace the policy
D. Charging premium amounts over and above the amount stated in the policy
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