Dermatologie
Dermatology Quiz Challenge
Test your knowledge with our comprehensive Dermatology Quiz, featuring 219 questions designed for healthcare professionals and students alike. Whether you're brushing up on your skills or preparing for a certification, this quiz will enhance your understanding of dermatologic conditions.
- Over 200 insightful questions
- Multiple choice format
- Suitable for all levels of expertise
1. A young boy comes to you with multiple areas of hypopigmented plaques on the body. Examination, you saw grouped flesh-colored tiny papules on the trunk, along the Blaschko lines. Those lesions are asymptomatic. The kid is otherwise healthy. You made a diagnosis of lichen striatus. What should you tell the parents?
A- The disease will disappear spontaneously
B- It will health with deep scars
C- Triamcinolone cream should not be given
D- We might give your son oral Itraconazole if the condition still spreading
E- The disease will last for few days
2. A 30 year old man comes to you with diffuse, thick, scaly burning plaques on the palm and the sole, especially on the pressure part. You saw some hyperkeratotic lesions on the elbows the patient did not notice. You made a diagnosis of psoriatic palmoplantar keratoderma. The patient is an active businessman, travelling a lot. What you should advise as a first line treatment?
A. You must perform a skin biopsy before you start a treatment
B. Examination with wood’s lamp is not helpful
C. Urea 10% should not use first as it may burn the skin
D. Systemic acitretin will be an option
E. 50% Salicylic acid will be prescribed
3. A 20 year old woman just married 3 weeks ago, brought to your office by her husband for a few asymptomatic, brown hyperkeratotic plaques on both legs. Some violin papules were also present on the arms. Those lesions are started since 6 months ago. By the way, he just learned he was infected by Hepatitis C virus. What is your next step? Tell the patient what you are going to do:
A- We will treat the lesion as it stay lifelong benign
B- You will look into her mouth as the disease could affect also the mucus membrane
C- You will prescribe her acitretin for 8 weeks
D- You will prescribe her topical steroid
E- You will prescribe her systemic hydroxychloroquine
4. A 25 year old man works 200km away from his family. He consulted for desquamative skin on the palms and soles for about 3 months. The skin lesions are mild itching. Close examination, the palm and sole are covered with hyperkeratotic, partly hyperpigmented plaques. Multiple slightly scaly plaques found on the trunk. He reported about painless papules which are later became ulcerated that last for one week on his genital area. There was no nail changed neither joints pain. What is your likely diagnosis?
A- Psoriasis palmoplantar
B- Crusted scabies
C- Dermatophyte infections
D- Secondary syphilis
E- Pityriasis rubra pilaris
5. A 6 year old boy presented with history of atopic dermatitis. She developed multiple keratotic follicular papules on the extensor surface of the arms and on the side of the thighs. His skin feels rough and look like goose-flesh. You diagnosed it as keratosis pilaris. What will be your advices?
A- The kid should take warm shower
B- He should use soap any time he take shower (at least 2-3 times per day)
C- The skin condition will be better in Winter time
D- Skin condition will health spontaneously in few week
E- He should expose to sunlight, as skin lesions may improve after exposure
6. A 20 year old girl consulted for multiple ovals, gray to blue brown macules and patches on the neck, trunk and extremities for about 8 weeks. Examination of the scalp, palms, soles, nail and mucous membrane we could not find any pathologic change. Now you diagnose as Erythema dyschromicum perstans. What will be your advices to patient?
A- The disease will regress spontaneously in a short period
B- According to the risk benefit ratio, clofazimine will be used for a long period
C- Q- switched ruby Laser will be used with great benefits
D- Skin biopsy is a routine examination of the disease
E- Antiparasitic is not beneficial treatment
7. An 18 year old footballer developed itchy, erythematous, annular, scaly plaques on the back, buttocks and the thighs. His General practitioner prescribed triamcinolone cream for 2 weeks, but it does help just for a couple of days, the skin lesion was keeping growing at the periphery. What is your most likely diagnosis?
A- Erythema annular centrifugum
B- Granuloma annularis
C- Chronic urticarial
D- Tinea corporis
E- Erythema dyschromicum perstans
8. A 12 year old boy consulted for annular, partly arciform, erythematous patches and plaques on the trunk and extremities for about 2 days. Those patches and plaques are not scaling. One week before the onset of the skin lesion the child developed fever and arthralgia. Laboratory examination revealed high ESR and CRP. ECG show a prolong PR-interval. What is your likely diagnose?
A- Erythema dyschromicum perstans
B- Erythema annular centrifugum
C- Annular lupus erythematosus
D- Erythema migrans
E- Erythema annular rheumaticum
9. A 40 year old man consulted for erythematous and white plaques on the glans, especially around urethral meatus. The preputium became narrow. He reported about painful intercourse and dysuria. What is your likely diagnosis?
A- Candidiasis balanitis
B- Psoriasis of the glans
C- Vitiligo of the glans
D- Erythroplasia of Queyrat
E- Lichen sclerosus
10. A 25 year old mal patient consulted for erythematous, slightly scaly itchy plaques on the scalp, eyebrows, around the nose and beard areas. The chest and pubic areas were also affected. You made a diagnosis of seborrheic dermatitis. What laboratory examination you would suggest him to do?
A- TSH
B- ANA
C- HIV
D- Hepatitis tests
E- Specific IgE-tests
11. A 35 year old woman presented with erythematous lesions on the face. Those lesions are more pronounce (more red and itching) when she exposed to the sunlight. Clinical examination we saw telangiectasia on the cheeks and on the nose. Your diagnosis was rosacea. You plan to treat her with topical medications. Which one would be the best?
A- Benzoyl peroxide 5%
B- Metronidazole 0.75 cream
C- Retinoid 0.025%
D- Triamcinolone 1% cream
E- Azelaic acid 15%
12. A 60 year old woman was diagnosed lung tuberculosis since about 3 months. She is now under TB-drugs and was than developed multiple erythematous follicular papules on the face and upper trunk. You diagnosed acneiform eruption. Which drug could be the most responsible?
A- Streptomycin
B- Ethambutol
C- Rifampicin
D- Ciprofloxacin
E- Isoniazid
13. A 35 year old man consulted for painful erosive plaques on the neck, armpits and on the groins. He reported about similar relapsed lesions since about one year. Those lesions are sometimes macerated malodorous vegetative and fissured. Culture was negative. Skin biopsy show acantholysis, but negative immunofluorescence. What is your likely diagnosis?
A- Pemphigus vulgaris
B- Dermatitis herpetiformis
C- Hailey-Hailey disease
D- Grover’s disease
E- Darier’s disease
14. A 30 year old man presented with generalized redness and scaling skin for about 6 weeks. Skin on the back of hands and on the back of feet was scaling. The palms and soles were not thickening. The lesions were itching, especially on the genital area and on the hands and feet. There was no nail changed, no joint pain. He was treated for his asthma with steroid inhalation and Singular 10 mg BID. No other medication was reported. General practitioner have tried to prescribe him Betamethasone cream BID for a month, but was not better. He met a new girlfriend 3 months ago. What is your likely diagnosis?
A- Psoriatic erythroderma
B- Crusted scabies
C- Erythrodermic drug eruption
D- Erythrodermic lymphoma
E- Pityriasis rubra pilaris
15. A 20 year old car repairer consulted for recurrent multiple inflammatory follicular papules on the face and on the upper trunk sine about one year. He play regularly sport and did expose a lot to sunlight. He drinks about 1500ml beer in the week, but he is not smoker. He was treated with 5% Benzoyl Peroxide that seem to reduce the inflammation for a while. New lesions still coming every day. You diagnosis was acneiform eruption. What was the reason for his skin problem?
A- Benzoyl Peroxide triggers new lesions
B- Oil triggers new lesions
C- Alcohol triggers new lesions
D- Exercise triggers new lesion
E- Sun exposure triggers new lesions
16. A 33 year old mal patient consulted for arthralgia on the wrists, knees and on the ankles. Patient reported that he has recurrent ulcers on the oral mucosa which are lasting for about one week each attack. Complete Blood Count was normal. No hair lost. No erosion on oral mucosa. Multiple atrophic scars on the perianal area. Multiple erythematous painful nodule on the limbs and sometime also on the body, but those lesion health without atrophic scars. What would be your diagnosis?
A- Sweet’s syndrome
B- Epidermolysis bullosa acquisita
C- Pemphigus vulgaris
D- Lupus erythematosus
E- Behcet’s disease
17. A 60 year old woman presented with follicular papules, some are confluence to orange-red scaly plaques on the body. The palms were covered with orange-red, waxy plaques. We remarked also diffuse erythema with desquamation and follicular hyperkeratosis on the knees. There was neither nail change nor joint pain. Transaminasis was normal. RPR was negative. What is your likely diagnosis?
A- Psoriasis
B- Lichen planus
C- Syphilis
D- Dermatomyositis
E- Pityriasis rubra pilaris
18. A 45 year old alcoholic mal patient consulted for multiple violin erythematous papules for about 6 weeks. Patient is treating for his Hyperblood pressure with ACE one tablet daily. He also takes hydroxychloroquine 400mg daily and paracetamol 500mg three times daily since about 4 months. For hyperlipidemia his GP prescribed him Simvastatin. The man has tremble hands after stoping alcohol. He received Vitamin B1 twice daily. Skin biopsy confirmed a diagnosis of lichenoid dermatosis. Which of the following medications that most likely to trigger his dermatosis?
A- Simvastatine
B- Hydroxychloroquine
C- ACE
D- Vit B1
E- Paracetamol
19. A 65 year old man consulted for multiple pruritic, crusted and eroded papules on the center of the back and mid of chest since 7 days after Christmas. There was no lesion in the fold areas. No history of skin disease neither in the childhood nor in the family. He has a long history of sun exposure without protection. Skin biopsy show acantholysis with dyskeratosis, associated with intraepidermal clefting. What is your likely diagnosis?
A- Grover’s disease
B- Hailey-Hailey disease
C- Darier’s disease
D- Bullous pemphigoid
E- Bullous impetigo
20. A 17 year old boy consulted for keratotic, red and brown papules partly confluence to plaques on the margin of scalp, neckand on the chest since about 5 years. Upon examination, we saw the same lesions on the groins. Longitudinal erythronychia was found. Examination of the oral mucosa we found whitish papules on the palate. Skin biopsy we saw acantholysis and apoptosis. What is your likely diagnosis?
A- Grover’s disease
B- Hailey-Hailey disease
C- Bullous pemphigoid
D- Darier’s disease
E- Pemphigus vulgaris
21. You are the doctor of a female patient suffering from acne conglobata (nodulare cystic acne) and you want to treat her with systemic isotretinoin in order to avoid scar formation. What do you not advice?
A- “You can only use this medication, if it is sure that you are not pregnant and if you will not become pregnant within the next year / years!”
B- “You can only use this medication, if you take an oral anti-contraceptive!”
C- “You are absolutely not allowed to give this medicine to anybody else. It is only for you!”
D- “If you start this treatment, the skin will probably worsen at the beginning, and you are not allowed to squeeze the skin lesions.”
E- “The treatment will be more powerful, if you use topical steroid cream additionally.
22. A 15 year old girl presented with multiple blackhead and whitehead comedones. Examination there was neither inflammatory papule nor pustule. The back and chest was spears. You made a diagnosis of acne comedonica. What is your most appropriate first line treatment
A- Oral Doxycycline
B- Topical Benzyl Benzoate 25%
C- Topical Trichloracetic acid 20%
D- Oral Isotretinoin
E- Topical Azelaic acid 15-20%
23. You see a 19 year old patient with acne and you want to give her some advices. Which of the following statements is not much helpful her?
A- benzoyl peroxide can bleach clothes
B- oral isotretinoin is teratogenic
C- avoidance of fatty food improves your acne
D- Topical retinoin could irritate your skin
E- Topical retinoin worsen your acne during the first 2-4 weeks
24. Facial gram-negative dermatitis (tick the correct answer):
A- affects predominantly men
B- may occur during treatment with doxycycline
C- cannot occur in children
D- requires often patience and consequent patient-education
E- responds very well to topical clobetasol
25. A 32 year old woman presented with erythema and telangiectasia on the face since about 6 months. Those lesions are relapsed very often. What should you tell the patient to avoid the “Flare-ups" of her rosacea:
A- she should apply topical steroid every evening
B- application of a sunscreen of at least SPF 40 twice daily
C- Sunlight will help to reduce the erythema
D- Food will not play a role in the disease
E- she should apply topical benzoyl peroxide twice daily
26. A 35 year old, 90kg, jobless women consulted for multiple painful, fluctuant pseudocysts and abscesses on the axillary area, under the breasts and on her buttocks since the age of 18. She was treated by many doctors for hidradenitis suppurativa, but still developed same lesions. You decide now to treat her by surgical operation. What should you advice to the patient to make wound healing faster?
A- She should not eat meat
B- She should not take vitamin C containing food to avoid keloid
C- She should not wash with any cleansing
D- She should stop smoking
E- She should stay in bed for at least one week
27. A18 year old, 1.70m tall and weight 95 kg consulted for multiple painful nodule and abscesses with some hyperplasia scars on the axillary, buttocks and also on the groins. For fear of developing sever hidradenitis suppurativa, you should give some advices to him. What should you tell him?
A- He should use daily fragranced antiperspirants to reduce the smell
B- Bleach baths should be avoid for fear of infection
C- Hydrogen peroxide solution should be avoid
D- He should wears loose fitting clothing
E- Intralesional corticosteroid is contraindicated
28. A 30 year old patient was treated by his doctor at the province by triamcinolone injection for multiple scaly plaques on the elbows, knees and also on the scalp. 4 months later he developed more plaques on the body and limbs. Palms and soles are coved with pustules. The flexures areas are speared. There is no dysuria. Conjunctiva and sclera look normal. What is you likely diagnosis:
A- Impetigo contagiasa
B- Reactive arthriris
C- Sneddon-Wilkinson disease
D- Candidiasis
E- Pustular psoriasis
29. What is the typical morphological appearance of lichen planus of the skin (tick correct answer):
A- polygonal, hyperkeratotic, ulcerated papules
B- erythematous macules
C- polygonal, flat-topped purplish papules
D- scaly, red-bluish papules
E- papules and vesicles
30. How would you treat extensive erosive lichen planus in the mouth (tick correct answer):
A- Systemic doxycycline
B- Systemic corticosteroids
C- Systemic acitretin
D- Systemic psoralen
E- no treatment because self-limiting
31. How does not lichen planus appear in the mouth (tick correct answer):
A- white, non removable strikes
B- erosions and bleeding
C- brown-red macules
D- Possible associated with pharyngeal involvement
E- redness, burning sensation in the mouth
32. The characteristic signs of lichen sclerosus on the vulva are the following. Which is the best answer?
A- Erythematous plaques with satellite papules
b- White patches with atrophic vulva
c- Painful ulcer with scars
d- Skin- colored, verrucous plaques
e- Lichenified plaques
33. What would be the best medication to treat a 30 year old woman with lichen sclerosus on the vulva?
a- Topical steroid classe IV (clobetasol) one application in the evening for 3 days
b- Topical azole derivative in the morning and in the evening for 21days
c- Topical steroid classe I (hydrocortisone) one application in the evening for 3 months
d- Topical steroid classe IV (clobetasol) one application in the evening for 3 months
e- Fusidic acid cream apply twice daily (morning and evening) for 8 days
34. A young man consulted for his relapsing Seborrheic dermatitis. Which of the following topical medication you should not advise him to use?
A- Topical steroid classe II (desonide)
B- Topical steroid classe IV (clobetasol)
C- Topical imidazole derivative (ketoconazole cream)
D- Sunscreen lotion
E- Shampoo containing Ketoconazole 2%
35. The following complications are seen in lichen sclerosus of the anogenital area. Which one is unlikely to happen?
A. Vulva SCC
B. Constipation
C. Dyspareunia
D. Problem during erection
E. Vulva BCC
36. Which is a medication that can worsen psoriasis?
A- Simvastatin
B- Hydrochlorothiazide
C- Metoprolol
D- Aspirin
E- Isotretinoin
37. What is this finding of nail psoriasis?
A- Pitting
B- Onycholysis
C- Oil spot
D- Leukonychia
E- Splinter hemorrhage
38- What is this finding seen in psoriasis?
A- Wickham’s striae
B- Auspitz sign
C- Nickolsky sign
D- Wornoff ring
E- Koebner phenomenon
39- Which body part is not often affected by psoriasis?
A- Sacrum
B- Scalp
C- Extensor knees
D- Face
E- Nails
40. Which is a common trigger for guttate psoriasis in children?
A- Streptococcus
B- Influenza
C- Chickenpox
D- Sunburn
E- Stress
41. What is the most common joint to be involved in psoriatic arthritis?
A- Toes
B- Fingers
C- Lower spine
D- Elbows
E- Knees
42. What is the first line treatment for limited plaque psoriasis with body surface area < 5%?
A. methotrexate
B. Anthralin
C. Tar
D. Topical steroid
E. Phototherapy
42. Which is a feature of psoriatic arthritis?
a- Morning stiffness
b- Worsens with activity
c- Knee involvement
d- Tendon rupture
F- Bursitis
43. What HLA is associated with reactive arthritis (Reiter’s disease)?
A- HLA-cw6
B- HLA-B27
C- HLA-B5801
D- HLA-B8
E- HLA-Bw35
44. What is a cutaneous finding in reactive arthritis (Reiter’s disease)?
A- Keratoderma blennorrhagicum
B- Nail pitting
C- Wickam’s striae
D- Koebner phenomenon
E- Wornoff ring
45- What infection is associated with reactive arthritis?
A- Staphylococcus aureus
B- Streptococcus
C- Chlamydia trichomatis
D- Treponema palladium
E- Dermatophytosis
46. Which is not a body part affected by type 3 pityriasis rubra pilaris?
A. Scalp
B. trunk
C. Nails
D. Palms
E. The lips
47. What is the most common variant of adult PRP?
A. Type 1 classic adult
B. Type 2 atypical adult
C. Type 3 classic juvenile
D. Type 4 circumscribed juvenile
E. Type 5 atypical juvenile
48. Which infection can be associated with oral lichen planus?
A. Hepatitis A
B. Hepatitis B
C. Hepatitis C
D. HIV
E. HSV (herpes simplex)
49. What is the name of this finding of lichen planus?
A. Koebner phenomenon
B. Kaposi’s varicelliform eruption
C. Wickham’s striae
D. Auspitz sign
E. Linea nigra
50. What is the most specific finding of nail lichen planus?
A. Pincer nails
B. Beau’s lines
C. Distal onycholysis
D. Dorsal pterygium
E. Oil spot
51. Which of the following histologic feature is not seen in lichen planus?
A. Saw tooth rete
B. hypergranulosis
C. Civatte/colloid bodies
D. Band like infiltrate
E. Spongiosis cells
52. What type of lichen planus is most common on the glans penis?
A. Atrophic
B. Hypertrophic
C. Lichen planus pigmentosus
D. Annular
E. Linear
53. What is a long standing complication of vulvar ulcerative lichen planus?
A. Herpes simplex infection
B. Candida yeast infection
C. Wickham’s striae
D. Squamous cell carcinoma
E. Melanoma
54. Which of the following is a cause of lichenoid drug eruption?
A. Captopril
B. Cetirizine
C. Digoxin
D. Hydroxyzine
E. Aspirin
55. What is the most common group to be affected by lichen striatus?
A. Neonates
B. Kids and adolescents
C. Elderly
D. Women
E. Men
56. What is an organ system involved in acute GVHD?
A. Intestine
B. Brain
C. Kidney
D. Eyes
E. Thyroid
57. What is the target antigen in Staph scalded skin syndrome?
A. BP 230
B. BP 180
C. desmoplakin
D. desmoglein 3
E. desmoglein 1
58. What is one reason that erythroderma can be life threatening?
A. hyperthermia
B. Increased risk of skin cancer
C. Increased risk of seborrheic keratoses
D. Desquamative scales
E. Cachexia
59. Which of the following is NOT a cause of erythroderma?
A. Drug reaction
B. Staph scalded skin
C. Pityriasis rubra pilaris
D. Pityriasis rosea
E. Cutaneous T cell lymphoma
60. What is the erythroderma associated with colloidal membrane?
A. Netherton
B. Non-bullous congenital epidermolytic ichthyosis
C. Epidermolytic hyperkeratosis (bullous CIE)
D. Seborrheic dermatitis
E. None of the above
61. Which diagnosis is the most pruritic erythroderma?
A. Psoriasis
B. Seborrheic dermatitis
C. Sezary syndrome
D. Pityriasis rubra pilaris
E. Non-bullous congenital epidermolytic ichthyosis
62. What PPK is associated with starfish keratoses?
A. Vohwinkle
B. Mal de Meleda
C. Bart-Pumphrey
D. Diffuse PPK
E. Naxos
64. Which PPK has these findings?
A. Bart-Pumphrey
B. Huriez/sclerotylosis
C. Hidrotic ectoderma dysplasia/Clouston
D. Olmsted
E. Pachyonychia congenital
65. What is the name of this condition?
A. Music box spine PPK
B. Focal acral hyperkeratosis
C. Aquagenic wrinkling of palms and soles
D. Punctate keratoderma
E. Circumscribed palmar hypokeratosis
66. What is the causative organism for seborrheic dermatitis?
A. dermatophyte
B. yeast
C. bacteria
D. virus
E. parasite
67. Which of the following is a first line treatment for seborrheic dermatitis?
A. Topical antifungal
B. Topical retinoid
C. Oral steroid
D. Oral antibiotics
E. Topical antibiotic
68. What is the distribution for Grover’s disease?
A. Head and neck
B. Trunk
C. Arms and legs
D. Scalp
E. Palms and soles
69. What is the nail finding for Darier disease?
A. Pitting
B. Distal onycholysis
C. V shaped nicking
D. Ridging
E. Oil spot
70. What is the name of this distribution for Darier’s disease?
A. Langer’s lines
B. Dermatomal lines
C. Fucher’s lines
D. Blaschko’s lines
E. Linea nigra
71. What is the most effective systemic medication for Darier’s disease?
A. Oral antibiotic
B. Isotretinoin
C. Oral antifungal
D. Prednisone
E. Cetirizine
72. Which of the following are exacerbating factor(s) for Darier disease?
A. summer
B. Occlusion
C. Lithium
D. Sweating
E. All of the above are exacerbating factors
73. What is the inheritance pattern for generalized (not Blaschkoid) Darier’s disease?
A. Autosomal dominant
B. Autosomal recessive
C. x-linked recessive
D. Sporadic
E. mosaicism
74. What is the mutation in Hailey-Hailey?
A. ATP 2A2
B. ATP 2C1
C. Keratin 1
D. Keratin 2
E. plakoglobin
75. What is the classic histologic feature for diagnosis of porokeratosis?
A. Checkerboard ortho and parakeratosis
B. Civatte bodies
C. Saw tooth rete
D. Microabscesses of Munro
E. Coronoid lamella
76. What is a complication that could not be seen in Hailey-Hailey?
A. Bacterial infection
B. Kaposi’s varicelliform eruption
C. Pain
D. Squamous cell carcinoma
E. All of the above
77. What is the most common skin type for ashy dermatosis?
A. Fitzpatrick I
B. Fitzpatrick II
C. Fitzpatrick III-IV
D. Fitzpatrick V
E. Fitzpatrick VI
78. What is the characteristic scale of deep erythema annulare centrifugum?
A. Micaceous scale
B. Trailing scale
C. Greasy scale
D. Wickham’s striae
E. No scale is seen
79. Which of the following is NOT part of the Jones major criteria for rheumatic fever?
A. carditis
B. polyarthritis
C. Subcutaneous nodules
D. Prolonged PR interval on EKG
E. chorea
80. Which is the classic morphology for erythema migrans?
A. Expanding bull’s eye
B. Wood grain
C. Annular plaque with trailing scale
D. Annular plaque without scale
E. Erythematous plaque with micaceous scale
81. Which cancers have NOT been associated with erythema gyratum repans?
A. stomach
B. lung
C. breast
D. Brain
E. Esophagus
82. Which is the fastest migrating gyrate erythema?
A. Superfiical erythema annulare centrifugum
B. Deep erythema annulare centrifugum
C. Erythema migrans
D. Erythema marginatum
E. Erythema gyratum repans
83. Oral tetracycline is not used in pregnant women with acne because of what potential complication in the infant:
A. Risk of bleaching of the skin
B. Risk of damage to the tooth enamel
C. Risk of resistant bacterial infections
D. Risk of hyperpigmentation of the skin
E. Risk of low birth weight baby
84. You have an 18 year old male with severe nodulocystic acne with scarring which has been resistant to many topical medications. All of the following could be considered as a next step in treatment except:
A. Oral Isotretinoin
B. Oral Minocycline
C. Oral Spironolactone
D. Oral Doxycycline
E. Oral Dapsone
85. You see a 17 y.o female for severe nodulocystic acne of 2 years. She has been on topical therapy (antibiotics and benzoyl peroxide) and oral antibiotics. She is interested in a “stronger therapy”. You discuss use of Isotretinoin use with her. You explain possible complications and side effects to her. You include the following point in your discussion:
A. The drug is teratogenic
B. She will need year long therapy
C. Taking an anti-depressant during her course would help its efficacy
D. Pulse dye laser should be done monthly
E. She should hold her sunscreen while on Isotretinoin
86. An obese 18 y.o. Male is referred to you. He has a rash on his neck .He thought it was from his skin “being dirty”, but was unable to scrub it off. On exam you note hyperpigmented velvety changes of his posterior and lateral neck. On history you also find out he has Diabetes Mellitus. His most likely diagnosis is:
A. Disseminated Superficial Actinic Porokeratosis
B. Acanthosis Nigricans
C. Confluent Reticulated Papillomatosis
D. Warty Dyskeratomas
E. Chronic (Discoid) Lupus
87. A 10 y.o. Female present with new onset acne. She has no prior therapy. She has scattered comedones and papules on her face only. Which of the following would you not consider in her therapy?
A. Tacrolimus
B. Topical Benzoyl Peroxide
C. Topical Erythromycin
D. Oral Doxycycline
E. Isotretinoin
88. You have a 13 y.o. Male patient who is started on topical benzoyl peroxide for facial acne. You may tell him the following facts except:
A. It may cause some dryness
B. It may cause irritation
C. It could bleach out his colored towel
D. It is highly photosensitizing
E. He may have to use it for several months
89. A differential diagnosis for acne could include the following except:
A. Rosacea
B. Hidradenitis Suppurativa
C. Folliculitis
D. Perioral Dermatitis
E. Pyoderma Gangrenosum
90. A 25 y.o female patient presents to you for the 1st time with nodulo-cystic acne. Each of the following would be important things to find out in her history except:
A. Family history of acne
B. Menstrual history
C. Medications she is taken
D. The amounts of sweets she eats daily
E. Previous acne treatments she’s used.
91. A 40 y.o female patient with chronic acne complains of the recent development of blue discoloration of her mucous membranes, sclera and scars. The drug most likely to cause this is:
A. Minocycline
B. Tetracycline
C. Erythromycin
D. Spironolactone
E. Isotretinoin
92. You have a 16 y.o. Female patient with moderate acne. You make a decision to treat her with oral Doxycycline. Instructions given her could include all of the following except:
A. They should wear a sunscreen
B. It may cause gastrointestinal upset
C. Severe headaches are a major side effect
D. They should not stop the medicine when it starts to clear
E. It may take 2-3 months to show significant improvement
93. Rosacea patients commonly present with all the following except:
A. Flushing and Erythema
B. Telangiectasias
C. Epidermal Inclusion cysts
D. Papules & pustules
E. Rhinophyma
94. 40 y.o. Male presents with onychomycosis of the toenails. Medication options include all of the oral medications following except:
A. Itraconazole
B. Ketoconazole
C. Fluconazole
D. Griseofulvin
E. Dapsone
95. 20 y.o. Female was treated for lichen planus on her lower legs. The active disease has resolved, but she has severe post-inflammatory hyperpigmentation. She asks how long it will take to resolve. The best estimate would be:
A. 2-3 hours
B. 2-3 days
C. 2-3 weeks
D. 2-3 months
E. 2-3 years
96. Best treatment options for Vitiligo would not include:
A. UVB light therapy
B. Elidel®
C. Tazarotene
D. Mometasone
E. UVA light therapy
97. 25 y.o male presents with a 3cm keloid on his right shoulder. Your treatment option for him would probably include:
A. Tetracycline orally
B. Isotretinoin
C. Intralesional steroids
D. UVB light therapy
E. Prednisolone
98. Minocycline could be an effective treatment modality in all of the following except:
A. Confluent Reticulated Papillomatosis
B. Rosacea
C. Acne
D. Perioral dermatitis
E. Pemphigus Vulgaris
99. You have started a 45 y.o. Male with severe psoriasis on Methotrexate. You have also instructed him to take this essential treatment:
A. Folate
B. Acyclovir
C. Co Q10
D. Nicotinamide
E. Vitamin B12
100. Griseofulvin is effective to treat all of the following except:
A. Tinea Barbae
B. Tinea Versicolor
C. Tinea Faceii
D. Tinea Capitis
E. Tinea Corporis
101. A 9 year old patient presents to your clinic with moderate atopic dermatitis requiring topical corticosteroid use. You counsel the parent about potential side effects of the medication. Which of the following is a common side effect of prolonged topical corticosteroid use?
A. Photosensitivity
B. Glaucoma
C. Skin atrophy
D. Skin infections
E. Warts
102. A 28 year old female presents with erythematous papules on her central face. You have diagnosed her with rosacea. Of the following the most appropriate initial treatment would be:
A. Clobetasol cream twice daily
B. Ketoconazole cream at bedtime
C. Tacrolimus ointment twice daily
D. Tretinoin cream .025% at bedtime
E. Metronidazole gel twice a day
103. A mother brings her 10 y.o. Daughter to you for advice on sun protection. You tell her the following about sunscreens (Choose the best answer) :
A. All sunscreens are effective immediately after application.
B. If she has darker skin pigment, the sunscreen is less important.
C. Sunscreens promote acne and therefore should be minimized for use on the face.
D. Waterproof sunscreens should be reapplied if she’s in the water more than 80 minutes.
E. It only needs to be applied on sunny days during peak hours of sunshine.
104. A 65 y.o. Obese woman has suffered from chronic leg swelling for several years. Her legs intermittently get red & swollen. Recently when this happens she applies a combination of Lanolin & Neosporin ointment. One week ago, she did this and her legs got very inflamed and developed blisters, oozing and severe pruritus. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Allergic contact dermatitis
B. Bullous Impetigo
C. Cellulitis
D. Psoriasis
E. Exfoliative Erythroderma
105. A 68 y.o. Male whom you have following for venous stasis disease for 10 years, develops a superficial leg ulcer over the last 2 months. Important facts learned in history taking would be all of the following except:
A. New onset of Diabetes mellitus.
B. He was diagnosed with worsening heart failure 6 months ago.
C. Trauma to the area after a fall 3 months ago.
D. He changed the sunscreen he uses on his legs.
E. Stopped wearing his compression hose socks 4 months ago
106. A 6 y.o. Girl presents with firm follicular papules on the lateral aspect of her arms and legs for 6 months. She has a history of atopic dermatitis and asthma. You have diagnosed her with keratosis pilaris. You would instruct the following points to her mother except:
A. Explain this condition is commonly related to her atopic dermatitis.
B. Recommend a urea based moisturizer
C. The patient’s younger brother could develop the same condition
D. Prescribe Tretinoin cr. 0.05% at bedtime
E. Prescribe Triamcinolone acetonide cr. 0.1% at bedtime
107. A 31 y.o. Male works as a dog trainer for several years. Recently he developed a scaly plaque with a raised border and central clearing on his right forearm. It was mildly pruritic. His primary care physician started him on Triamcinolone cr. 0.05% BID. Since then the lesion has expanded and become more pruritic. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Tinea Cruris
B. Nummular Eczema
C. Guttate Psoriasis
D. Tinea Manum
E. Tinea Corporis
108. You have a 30 y.o. Female patient had abdominal surgery 3 months ago. A month later she developed psoriasis plaques along the surgical excision scar. This reaction is best described as a:
A. Id reaction
B. Nikolsky’s sign
C. Koebner phenomena
D. Darier’s sign
E. “Black Dot” sign
109. Common side effects of overuse of topical corticosteroids include all of the following except:
A. Hypopigmentation
B. Hypothalamus-pituitary axis suppression
C. Skin atrophy
D. Telangiectasias
E. Striae
110. A 38 y.o. Male presents to you with a complaint of dryness of his right hand. It has not improved despite using several hand creams. Examination of which of the following body areas would be most important in making his diagnosis:
A. Fingernails
B. Tongue
C. Elbows
D. Scalp
E. Feet
111. Features frequently seen in patients with atopic dermatitis include the following except:
A. Hyperlinear palms
B. Alopecia
C. Dennie-Morgan lines
D. Pityriasis Alba
E. Keratosis pilaris
112. A 32 y.o. Male presents to your office with a “new rash” over the last 48 hours. It has been getting progressively more pruritic. On exam you notice papulo-vesicular lesions on the left upper arm in a linear pattern. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis:
A. Psoriasis
B. Lichen Planus
C. Atopic Dermatitis
D. Erythema Multiforme
E. Allergic Contact Dermatitis
113. A 67 y.o. Male presents with a new onset of large (1cm) tense bullae on his legs with no pruritus. There was no other cutaneous or mucous membrane involvement. His health was otherwise unremarkable. Of the following diagnoses which is most likely his diagnosis:
A. Epidermolysis Bullosa
B. Pemphigus Vulgaris
C. Bulllous Pemphigoid
D. Herpes Gestationes
E. Herpes Zoster
114. Acyclovir is important in treating all of the following except:
A. Herpes Simplex , type I
B. Herpes Simplex, type II
C. Herpes Zoster
D. Herpetic Whitlow
E. Herpes Gestationes
115. Kerion is a clinical finding which can be seen in which chronic fungal infection?
A. Tinea capitis
B. Tinea pedis
C. Tinea unguinum
D. Tinea corporis
E. Tinea cruris
116. You have an 8 y.o. Boy present with a 2 week history of a facial rash. On exam he has superficial erosions on the face with overlying “honey-colored” crusts. You diagnose bullous impetigo. The following are true about this condition except:
A. It is caused by Staphylococcal Aureus
B. Dicloxacillin can be used to treat.
C. Mupirocin use is ineffective in these patients.
D. It is most common in ages 2-5 y.o.
E. Can have flaccid blisters.
117. The most common skin cancer is:
A. Basal Cell Carcinoma
B. Squamous Cell Carcinoma
C. Melanoma
D. Merkel Cell Carcinoma
E. Mycosis Fungoides
118. Most skin cancer deaths result from:
A. Basal Cell Carcinoma
B. Squamous Cell Carcinoma
C. Melanoma
D. Angiosarcoma
E. Mycosis Fungoides
119. Squamous cell carcinoma can be a consequence of which of the following types of warts:
A. Genital
B. Periungal
C. Plantar
D. Flat
E. Common
120. Staphylococcus Aureus can play a prominent role in all of the following except:
A. Bullous Impetigo
B. Carbuncles
C. Staph Scalded Skin Syndrome
D. Pyogenic Granuloma
E. Bacterial Folliculitis
121. You have a 40y.o. Obese female pregnant for the 1st time. She complains of an urticarial eruption on her torso, but the umbilicus is clear. You diagnose her with Pruritic Urticarial Papules and Plaques of Pregnancy. (PUPP). Instructions you would give her include all of the following except:
A. Her itching should resolve after her delivery
B. Since there are no lesions around her umbilicus she doesn’t need to worry about Herpes Gestationes
C. She is an high risk of a low birth weight baby
D. Topical cortisones should help her itching.
E. This condition probably won’t recur with future pregnancies.
122. All of the following dermatoses are frequently seen with pregnancy except:
A. Melasma
B. Linea Nigra
C. Palmar erythema
D. Striae (“stretch marks”)
E. Lichen Planus
123. A 32 y.o male presents with a rash, which developed over the last 2 months. It appears to worsen with sun exposure. On exam he has polycyclic, anular scaly plaques (“Medallion plaques”) on his upper shoulders and upper back. His most likely diagnosis is:
A. Systemic Lupus
B. Subacute Lupus
C. Chronic ( Discoid) Lupus
D. Pityriasis Rosea
E. Miliaria Rubra
124. A 26 y.o female presents with a malar rash over the last 4-6 months. It flares after sun exposure. She also complains of redness of the chest and forearms after sun exposure. Review of system also reveals worsening pain and swelling of wrists and knees. You diagnose her with Systemic Lupus Erythematosus. Which of the following laboratory tests would you not order? :
A. BUN & Cr
B. IgE
C. ANA
D. Anti- DS-DNA
E. ESR
125. A 28 y.o. Female presents with atrophic plaques with violaceous borders on her scalp, right ear and forehead. Clinically you diagnose her with Discoid Lupus. Which of the following would not be in your treatment plan? :
A. Sunscreen
B. Triamcinolone Acetonide cr. 0.1%
C. Intralesional Steroids
D. Plaquenil
E. Methotrexate
126. The following skin changes are commonly seen in Systemic Lupus Erythematosus except:
A. Onycholysis of toenails
B. Oral Ulcerations
C. Malar Rash
D. Raynaud’s Disease
E. Photosensitivity
127. A 24 y.o. Pregnant female presents with a 4mm erythematous friable papule on her finger. She remembers scratching the finger a week before it appeared. She comes in because she has difficulty controlling the bleeding. The most likely diagnosis of this lesion is:
A. Angioma
B. Dermatofibroma
C. Pyogenic Granuloma
D. Verruca Vulgaris
E. Seborrheic Keratosis
128. The following statements about cellulitis are true except:
A. Commonly occurs on the legs
B. Can follow local trauma to the area
C. 80% of cases are from Gram (+) organisms
D. You may see lymphangitic spread
E. Fluconazole is a good adjunctive therapy.
129. An 18 y.o. Female asks you about what she should look for in choosing a sunscreen. You tell her to look for on the label for all of the following important factors except:
A. Broad Spectrum
B. Organic
C. SPF 30+
D. Sunblock
E. Water-resistant
130. You have an 80 y.o. Male with a Basal Cell Carcinoma on his right cheek. Treatment options could include all of the following except:
A. Imiquimod
B. Electrodessication and Curettage
C. Mohs Surgery
D. Radiation
E. Dapsone
131. You have a 45 y.o. Male with a cellulitis of his left lower leg. Of the following, which would not be an appropriate treatment:
A. Microsporum Canis
B. Trichophyton Tonsurans
C. Pityrosporum
D. Candida Albicans
E. Group A Streptococcus
133. The following statements about flat warts are true except:
A. They can occur in large numbers (~100)
B. Usually on face in children
C. Can be made worse by shaving
D. Respond well to topical steroids
E. Usually on the beard area in men.
134. A 10 y.o. Boy complains of a growth on his right foot. He feels it occurred after he started swimming 3 months ago. It has become more painful. It feels if he’s stepping on a “rock”. On exam he has a 10mm verrucous plaque on the plantar aspect of the right foot. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis:
A. Neurofibroma
B. Lipoma
C. Plantar wart
D. Condyloma Accuminata
E. Lichenoid Keratosis
135. An 18 y.o. Female presents with a new onset rash. On exam she had several small erythematous anular scaly plaques on her torso and extremities. Mildly pruritic. On history you found out she was diagnosed with a strep throat a couple weeks prior to the outbreak of the rash. Of the following which would make the most likely diagnosis:
A. Tinea Versicolor
B. Verruca Plana (Flat Warts)
C. Lichen Planus
D. Guttate Psoriasis
E. Subacute Lupus Erythematosus
136. The gold standard to measure the severity of psoriasis is the:
A. Nikolsky’s sign
B. Immunoflourescence exam
C. Dermoscopy
D. ESR
E. PASI
137. You have a 60 y.o. Female who presents with a new painful rash on her left chest and back x 2-3 days. On exam there are grouped vesicles in a dermatomal distribution on the left chest and back. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Herpes Simplex
B. Herpes Zoster
C. Dermatitis Herpetiformis
D. Herpes Gestationes
E. Subacute Lupus Erythematosus
138. Which of the following statements about Eczema Herpeticum is false:
A. Tends to happen in patients with Atopic Dermatitis
B. Most frequently occurs in children
C. Responds well to oral Acyclovir
D. Is caused by Herpes Simplex, type I
E. Usually caused by a magnesium deficiency
139. A 56 y.o. Male with a long standing history of rosacea presents to your clinic. His major complaint is the bulbous changes of his nose. The appearance of the nose is usually referred to as:
A. Sebaceous Hyperplasia
B. Rhinophyma
C. Adenoma Sebaceum
D. Erysipelas
E. Chondrodermatitis Nodularis Helicis
140. You have a 30 y.o. Patient with recurrent erythema and papules in the malar region of the face. There was no evidence of scarring or atrophy. Your differential diagnosis may include all of the following except:
A. Carcinoid Syndrome
B. Rosacea
C. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
D. Perioral dermatitis
E. Discoid Lupus
1. Reliable signs of malignancy are (which answer is correct?):
O destructive growth and metastasis
O pain
O growth
O ulceration
O regional lymphadenopathy
2. Typical signs for a benign skin tumour (which answer is incorrect?):
O symmetry
O well defined borders
O homogenous colour
O slow growth activity
O Different colours
3. Which answer is incorrect?
O neoplasm stands for tumour
O cancer can be benign or malignant
O carcinoma is a malignant tumour of epithelial cells
O fibrosarcoma is not a malignant tumour of melanocytes
O angiosarcoma originates from endothelial cells
4. Which answer is incorrect?
O erythema means red coloured macular skin lesion
O exanthema stands for a rash
O enanthema stands for spontaneous regression of exanthema
O erythroderma means red skin all over the body
O eczema stands for dermatitis
5. Risk factors to develop skin cancer are (which answer is correct?):
O cumulative UV-irradiation in the whole life
O scarring after burn, acid accident, or chronic ulceration
O immuno-suppression by drugs or HIV
O Exposure to carcinogens such as benzole, tar, arsenic
O all answers are correct
6. Characteristics for SCC are (which answer is incorrect?):
O never arises in sun-exposed skin
O originates from epidermal keratinocytes
O may start as actinic keratosis, Bowen’s disease or intraepidermal cancer
O may show ulceration, pain and inflammation
O may show lymphatic or hematogenous spread
7. Characteristics for BCC are (which answer is incorrect?):
O pearly, elevated border
O radial teleangiectasias
O frequently pigmented
O it is semi-malignant
O may grow on all skin sites including palms, soles, mucous membranes
8. SCC differs from BCC by (which answer is correct?):
O ulceration
O metastasis
O local destructive growth
O colour of the surface
O relapse after surgery
9. Differential diagnosis for a darkly pigmented nodule (which answer is incorrect?):
O BCC
O dermatofibroma
O seborrheic keratosis
O congenital melanocytic nevus
O café-au-lait spot
10. Differential diagnosis for multiple nodules on the scalp (which answer is incorrect?):
O trichilemmal cysts
O angiosarcoma of the head
O nevus sebaceus
O neurofibromas
O metastasis
11. Differential diagnosis for a solitary nodule on the scalp (which answer is Incorrect?):
O cutaneous metastasis
O lipoma
O B cell lymphoma
O BCC
O Sebaceus hyperplasia
12. Differential diagnosis for a solitary hyperkeratotic plaque on the skin (which answer is incorrect?):
O SCC
O hypertrophic discoid lupus erythematosus
O tuberculosis verrucosa cutis
O viral wart
O trichilemmal cysts
13. Differential diagnosis for an ulcerated non-pigmented nodule (which answer is inc orrect?):
O SCC
O granuloma pyogenicum
O BCC
O Metastasis
O Cherry angioma
14. Differential diagnosis for multiple hyperkeratotic,verrucous plaques on the trunk (which answer is incorrect?):
O seborrheic keratoses
O actinic keratoses
O psoriasis
O common warts
O BCC
15. Which statement is correct?
O SCC is a hyperkeratotic nodule, symmetric in architecture, soft, and movable on the
underlying tissue
O BCC is a slowly growing plaque or nodule with frequent risk for ulceration and metastasis
O melanocytic nevus is a homogeneously brown coloured macule or papule with increased
risk for malignant transformation into melanoma
O Pyogenic granuloma is a vascular tumour which is vulnerable and tends to ulcerate
O angiosarcoma is HIV-related and can show spontaneous regression
16. Differential diagnosis for circumscribed homogeneous erythema (which answer is Inorrect?):
O erysipelas
O nevus flammeus
O infantile hemangioma
O erysipelas carcinomatosum in breast cancer
O Intertrigo candidiasis
17. Differential diagnosis for depigmented macules (which answer is incorrect?):
O hypertrophic scars
O vitiligo
O pityriasis versicolor alba
O indeterminate leprosy
O pityriasis alba
18. Benign skin tumor that often shows ulceration (which answer is incorrect?):
O keratoacanthoma
O pyogenic granuloma
O Infantile hemangioma
O pyoderma gangraenosum
O lipoma
19. Differential diagnosis for hyperkeratotic papules or plaques (which answer is incorrect?):
O seborrheic keratoses
O stukko keratoses
O verrucae planae
O nevus sebaceus
O steatocystoma
20. Differential diagnosis for annular plaques (which answer is incorrect?):
O mycosis fungoides
O leprosy
O lupus vulgaris
O granuloma anulare
O ILVEN
21. Differential diagnosis for a longstanding verrucous tumour on one sole (which answer is correct?):
O verruca vulgaris
O SCC
O scabies crustosa
O Kaposi’s sarcoma
O Infundibular cyst
22. Differential diagnosis for an ulcerated tumour on the penis (which answer is incorrect?)
O SCC
O primary syphilis
O chancroid
O lymphogranuloma inguinale
O PPP
23. Differential diagnosis for angiofibroma at the sulcus coronarius (which answer is correct?):
O condylomata acuminata
O condylomata lata (syphilis)
O pearly penile papules
O ectopic sebaceous glands
O all answers are correct
24. Differential diagnosis for an ulcerated tumour in the oral cavity (which answer is correct?):
O SCC
O primary syphilis
O tuberculosis ulcerosa mucosae
O lupus erythematosus
O all answers are correct
25. Which answer is incorrect?
O capillary hemangioma is a vascular malformation with high proliferative activity of
endothelial cells and with onset in infancy
O hemangioma is located in the dermis or subcutaneous fat and may show ulceration
O granuloma pyogenicum is a vascular malformation with proliferative activity and high
incidence for spontaneous involution
O infantile hemangioma in face should be treated if showing growth activity
O nevus flammeus is a vascular malformation with no proliferation but dilation of blood vessels and with onset in adults
26. The following tumors are characteristic with rapid growth during the first 3 months after the onset of the lesion. Which one is not belong to the group?
A- Keratoacanthoma
B- Spitz nevus
C- Pyogenic granuloma
D- Infantile hemangioma
E- Nevus flameus
27. Actinic keratosis (which answer is incorrect?):
O is an intraepidermal cancer
O may be inherited
O may develop into invasive SCC
O is seen on sun-exposed skin
O is termed “actinic cheilitis” on the lips
28. Seborrheic keratoses (which answer is correct?):
O can arise in great numbers
O can transform into Bowen’s disease
O are frequent in young age
O predilection areas are not on face, neck and trunk
O can also appear on mucous membranes
29. Dermatosis papulosa nigra (which answer is incorrect?):
O is a variant of seborrheic keratosis
O is seen on the cheeks
O tends to spread all over the body
O is pigmented
O is not found in white coloured skin
30. Epidermal nevus (which answer is incorrect?):
O may be inflammatory
O may be linear
O may be verrucous
O may follow Blaschko’s lines
O may transform into BCC or melanoma
31. “Cutaneous horn” (which answer is correct?):
O is a symptom, not a diagnosis
O may be caused by viral wart
O may be caused by Bowen’s disease
O may be caused by SCC
O all answers are correct
32. Cysts (which answer is incorrect?):
O may be lined by stratified squamous epithelium, e.g. Epidermoid cyst
O may be lined by non-stratified squamous epithelium, e.g. Trichilemmal cyst
O may show absence of epithelium, e.g. ganglion
O may be multiple
O may transform into BCC
33. Indications for the excision of cysts may be (which answer is correct?):
O inflammation
O rupture
O esthetic considerations
O suspicion for malignancy
O all answers are correct
34. Differential diagnosis to BCC (which answer is correct?):
O SCC
O nevus sebaceous
O solitary syringoma
O sebaceous hyperplasia
O all answers are correct
35. Syingoma is characterized by (which answer is incorrect?):
O is a benign neoplasm
O is mostly seen in the face
O may be multiple
O is at risk to transform into malignancy
O can be treated by shave biopsy, curettage, cryosurgery, or laser
36. Which answer is incorrect?
O lentigo simplex could be found everywhere on the skin including labial and genital region
O Blue nevus is a melanocytic nevus in the dermis
O solar lentigines are on sun-exposed skin with onset over age 30
O lentigo simplex may be in the skin including labial and genital region
O Mongolian spot usually shows onset in adults with spontaneous resolution
O multiple café-au-lait macules could be a symptom of neurofibromatosis
37. Which answer concerning melanoma is incorrect?
O lentigo simplex is a precursor lesion for melanoma
O acrolentiginous melanoma is the predominant manifestation of melanoma in Asia
O invasive melanoma with high risk for metastasis is present, when tumour thickness
exceeds 1 mm
O invasive melanoma with low risk for metastasis is present, when tumour thickness does
not exceed 1 mm
O melanoma can evolve from a large congenital melanocytic nevus
38. Which answer concerning traumatic neuroma (amputation neuroma) is correct?
O it occurs only at the site of previous trauma
O it is not painful
O it is not sensitive
O it is not circumscribed
O differential diagnosis is an acquired melanocytic nevus
39. Differential diagnoses for auricular appendages are (which answer is incorrect?):
O neurofibroma
O fibroma
O acute insect bite
O lipoma
O adnexal skin tumour
40. Which skin tumour is painful (which answer is incorrect?):
O neurofibroma upon palpation
O neurosarcoma spontaneously
O lipoma spontaneously
O liposarcoma spontaneously
O glomus tumour upon palpation
41. Which are clinical signs for transformation of lipoma into malignancy (which answer is incorrect?):
O inflammation of overlying skin
O spontaneous pain by central nerve compression
O ulceration
O new growth activity
O increased yellow colour
42. HIV-associated skin tumours are (which answer is incorrect?)
O SCC
O BCC
O mollusca contagiosa
O verrucae vulgares
O cutaneous lymphoma
43. Which statement is incorrect?
A- Darier’s sign is positive in mastocytosis
B- Dimple sign is positive in dermatofibroma
C- “Button-hole” sign is positive in neurofibroma
D- Testing for ballottement is positive in cysts
E- Ultrasonography is not useful in capillary vascular malformation
44. Pruritus is present in the following conditions, which disease is not typically accompanied by pruritus?
A- Mastocytosis
B- Hypertrophic scar and active keloid
C- Malignant skin tumor
D- Cutaneous T-cell lymphoma
E- Scabies
45. The following symptoms are complications of an infantile hemangioma. Which one is not?
Massive growth
B- Ulceration
C- Uncontrolled bleeding in case of gastrointestinal or respiratory tract involvement
D- Scarring atrophy after spontaneous resolution
E- Kasabach-Merrit syndrome (sever coagulopathy)
46. The following symptoms are typical for nevus flammeus. Which one is not?
A- Rapid growth activityies only in the first 3 months after onset
B- Hyperplasia and nodular formation in adults
C- Hypertrophy of the underlying tissue due to maximum oxygene supply
D- No growth activity
E- Rule out a underlying arterio-venous malformation by palpation, use stetoscope or ultrasound
A benign epithelial cell neoplasm derived from non-glandular surfaces is referred to as:
A. papilloma
B. sarcoma
C. adenoma
D. hamartoma
E. Squamous cell carcinoma
48. Which one of the following is not considered to be a distinctive pattern of non-neoplastic growth?
A. regeneration
B. hypertrophy
C. hyperplasia'
D. anaplasia
E. metaplasia
49. Which one of the following is considered to be the hallmark of malignancy
A. Anaplasia and the rate of growth of the neoplastic mass
B. Metastasis and the degree of encapsulation of the neoplastic mass
C. Formation of giant cells and cellular anaplasia within and around the neoplastic mass
D. Presence of undifferentiated cells and evidence of metastasis
E. Cellular anaplasia and growth by expansion of the neoplastic mass
50. The process of neoplastic cells moving through the circulatory system and becoming lodged in a vessel causing obstruction is referred to as:
A. anaplasia
B. neoplasia
C. thrombosis
D. transplantation
E. embolism
51. Which of the following variables best predicts prognosis for patient with a recent diagnosis of cutaneous melanoma and no clinical evidence of metastatic disease?
A- Breslow thickness
B- Clark’s level
C- Ulceration
D- Gender
E- Seize of tumor
52. Dermoscopic features suggestive of malignant melanoma include:
A- Presence of 2 or more colors within the lesion
B- Blue- whitish veil
C- Asymmetric radial streaming
D- Abrupt interruption of pigment network in the periphery
E- Cobblestone pattern
53. Which syndrome is characterized by multiple keratoacanthomas beginning in childhood?
A- Muir-Torre
B- Ferguson Smith
C- Rombo
D- Grybowski
E- Keratoacanthoma centrifugum marginatum
54. The risk of metastasis from SCC increase with the following factors. Which one is correct?
A- Age of patient (old age)
B- Color of the lesion (hyperpigmented lesion)
C- Tumor on the body
D- Degree of differentiation
E- All of these answers are correct
55. Which of the following features of thin melanomas (1mm thick) has been associated with an increased risk of metastasis?
A- Regression
B- Location
C- Seize of lesion
D- Gender
E- P53 expression
56. The following vascular lesions are benign. Which one you know the best is malignant?
A- Spindle cell hemangioma
B- Epitheloid hemangioma
C- Angiofibroma
D- Pyogenic granuloma
E- Epitheloid hemangioendothelioma
60 year- old farmer man consult for hyperpigmented, shiny nodule on the forehead for about 5 years. The lesion grows gradually. Dermoscopy shows telangiectatic border. What is your likely diagnosis?
A- Seborrheic keratosis
B- Dermatofibroma
C- Haemangioma
D- Melanoma
E- Basal Cell Carcinoma
A benign epithelial cell neoplasm derived from non-glandular surfaces is referred to as:
A. papilloma
B. sarcoma
C. adenoma
D. hamartoma
E. Squamous cell carcinoma
Which one of the following is not considered to be a distinctive pattern of non-neoplastic growth?
A. regeneration
B. hypertrophy
C. hyperplasia
D. anaplasia
E. metaplasia
60. Each of the following is an anaplastic change except:
A. Pleomorphism and hyperchromatism
B. Increased mitosis and abnormal mitotic figures
C. Nuclei that vary in shape and size
D. Presence of undifferentiated cells
E. Presence of abundant chromatin in cytoplasmic organelles
61. Which of the following is least likely to be used as a means of distinguishing a benign from a malignant neoplasm?
A. Degree of cellular differentiation
B. Rate of growth
C. Type and amount of necrosis
D. Evidence of metastasis
E. Mode of spread
A. Papillomas of the skin
B. Squamous cell carcinomas of the skin
C. Adenocarcinomas of the lungs
D. Basal cell carcinomas
E. Osteogenic sarcomas of the limbs
63. Which one of the following features is more characteristic of a benign than a malignant neoplasm
A. Grows by expansion and implantation occurs frequently
B. Metastasizes if the brain is the site of origin
C. Usually non-encapsulated and necrosis seldom occurs
D. Tend to recur after surgical removal
E. Usually occur singly and do not recur after surgical removal
64. There are at least three (3) groups of DNA viruses known to have strong oncogenic potential in animal systems. Which one of the following is true for DNA viruses with the capability of causing neoplastic transformation
A. DNA viruses do not replicate within host cells in which they induce neoplastic transformation
B. DNA viruses are able to replicate within host cells and at the same time induce neoplastic transformation
C. defective DNA oncogenic viruses which lack the genetic information necessary for replication are unable to cause neoplastic transformation
D. DNA oncogenic viruses will cause neoplastic transformation only in cells derived from animal species that are the normal host for the virus
E. oncogenic DNA viruses possess the genetic information for the synthesis of RNA-dependent DNA polymerase which is a requirement for neoplastic transformation
65. Which one of the following is considered to be the hallmark of malignancy
A. Anaplasia and the rate of growth of the neoplastic mass
B. Metastasis and the degree of encapsulation of the neoplastic mass
C. Formation of giant cells and cellular anaplasia within and around the neoplastic mass
D. Presence of undifferentiated cells and evidence of metastasis
E. Cellular anaplasia and growth by expansion of the neoplastic mass
66. The process of neoplastic cells moving through the circulatory system and becoming lodged in a vessel causing obstruction is referred to as:
A. anaplasia
B. neoplasia
C. thrombosis
D. transplantation
E. embolism
67. The following cysts are formed by lining of stratified squamous epithelium. Which one is NOT belong to the group?
A- Milium
B. Trichelemmal cyst
C. Vellus hair cyst
D. Steatocystoma
E. Hidrocystoma
68. The follow cysts are formed without an epithelial lining. Which one is not in the group?
A. Mucocele
B. Digital mucous cyst
C. Cutaneous ciliated cyst
D. Ganglion
E. Pseudocyst of the auricle
69. An African-American women consulted for multiple hyperpigmented sessile, some are filiform papule, mainly on the face.
A. Seborrheic keratosis
B. Syringoma
C. Verrucae plannae
D. Dermatosis papulosis nigra
E. Pigmented BCC
70. A 65 year old garden man consulted for multiple verrucous, skin- colored plaques on the cheek and on the scalp since about 10 years.
A. Verrucae plannae
B. Seborrheic keratosis
C. Syringoma
D. Dermatosis papulosa nigra
E. Actinic keratosis
71. 50 year old man consulted for erythematous, partly erosive plaques on the preputium and on the glans for about 2 years. The lesion is slightly burning, otherwise asymptomatic.
A- Candidiasis
B- Erythroplasia of Queyrat
C- Genital herpes
D- Allergic contact dermatitis
E- Psoriasis
72. The following vascular diseases are vascular tumors. Which one is NOT?
A- Infantile hemangioma
B- Congenital hemangioma
C- Pyogenic granuloma
D- Cavenous angioma
F- Congenital hemangiomaendothelioma
73. Actinic keratosis is a precursor of the following skin cancer. Which one is the correct answer?
A- BCC
B- SCC
C- Melanoma
D- Merkel Cell Carcinoma
F- Dermatofibrosarcoma protuberans
74. The followings statements are about mycosis fungoides. Which one is not true?
A. It is the most common form of cutaneous lymphoma
B. Pautrier`s micro abscess is histologic criteria
C. Affects T cells
D. Indolent course is a good prognosis and easily amenable to treatment
E. Enythroderma seen and spreads to peripheral circulation
75. Which of the following statement is not true about skin tag?
A. Associated with seborrhoeic keratosis
B. pedunculated
C. Most common site is neck and axilla
D. Occurs mostly during premalignant
E. Is a cutaneous sign of internal malignancy
76. Which naevi commonly predispose to malignant melanoma
A. dermal
B. junctional
C. congenital
D. lentigo
E. blue
77. Stage I cutaneous T cell lymphoma treatment is following, Which one is the most appropriate?
A. PUVA
B. Biological response modifiers
C. Systemic chemotherapy
D. Extracorporeal photopheresis
E. radiotherapy
78. 70 year old female consulted for a plaque on her face sind about 5 year. Histological examination confirmed the diagnosis of BCC. What is your preferable treatment?
A- Curretage
B- Electrocauterizing
C- CO2 laser
D- Systemic Chemotherapy
E- Total excision with control of the margin
79. 42 year old female patient develop multiple hypertrophic and partly atrophic plaques on the face. Burning when she expose to the sunlight. Histological examination confirmed the diagnosis of Chronic Discoid Lupus Erythematosus. You are her physician, what you should tell her about the skin lesion?
A. Disease is normally self-limited
B. This is a contagious disease
C. We could cure your illness for ever
D. The lesion will disappear without any scar
E. Lesion could lead later to SCC
80. 25 year old female patient consulted for multiple papule and nodule on the face since young age. She could finish primary school only. Patient has difficulty to answer doctor question during the consultation. Examination reveal lesion periungual also. What is your diagnosis?
A. Neurofibromatosis
B. Dermatofibromatosis
C. Tuberous sclerosis
D. Acne
E. Prurigo
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