Bio Exam 3 Practice
Bio Exam 3 Practice Quiz
Prepare yourself for the ultimate challenge in biology with our comprehensive Bio Exam 3 Practice Quiz! This quiz is designed for students aiming to reinforce their understanding of molecular biology, genetics, and virology concepts. Test your knowledge on a variety of topics and gain confidence for your upcoming exam.
Features of the quiz include:
- 54 thought-provoking multiple-choice questions
- Immediate feedback on your answers
- A diverse range of genetic principles and biotechnological applications
1. Which of the following characteristics, structures, or processes is common to both bacteria and viruses?
(A) metabolism
(B) ribosomes
(C) genetic material composed of nucleic acid
(D) cell division
2. Emerging viruses arise by
(A) mutation of existing viruses
(B) the spread of existing viruses to new host species.
(C) the spread of existing viruses more widely within their host species.
(D) all of the above.
3. To cause a human pandemic, the H5N1 avian flu virus would have to
(A) spread to primates such as chimpanzees.
(B) develop into a virus with a different host range.
(C) become capable of human-to-human transmission.
(D) become much more pathogenic.
4. A bacterium is infected with an experimentally constructed bacteriophage composed of the T2 phage protein coat and T4 phage DNA. The new phages produced would have
(A) T2 protein and T4 DNA.
(B) T4 protein and T2 DNA.
(C) T2 protein and T2 DNA.
(D) T4 protein and T4 DNA.
5. RNA viruses require their own supply of certain enzymes because
(A) host cells rapidly destroy the viruses.
(B) host cells lack enzymes that can replicate the viral genome.
(C) these enzymes translate viral mRNA into proteins.
(D) these enzymes penetrate host cell membranes.
6. In DNA technology, the term vector can refer to
(A) the enzyme that cuts DNA into restriction fragments.
(B) the sticky end of a DNA fragment.
(C) a SNP marker.
(D) a plasmid used to transfer DNA into a living cell.
7. Which of the following tools of DNA technology is incorrectly paired with its use?
(A) electrophoresis—separation of DNA fragments
(B) DNA ligase—cutting DNA, creating sticky ends of restriction fragments
(C) DNA polymerase—polymerase chain reaction to amplify sections of DNA
(D) reverse transcriptase—production of cDNA from mRNA
8. Plants are more readily manipulated by genetic engineering than are animals because
(A) plant genes do not contain introns.
(B) more vectors are available for transferring recombinant DNA into plant cells.
(C) a somatic plant cell can often give rise to a complete plant.
(D) plant cells have larger nuclei.
9. A paleontologist has recovered a bit of tissue from the 400-year- old preserved skin of an extinct dodo (a bird). To compare a specific region of the DNA from a sample with DNA from living birds, which of the following would be most useful for increasing the amount of dodo DNA available for testing?
(A) SNP analysis
(B) polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
(C) electroporation
(D) gel electrophoresis
10. Which of the following is true of cDNA produced using human brain tissue as the starting material?
(A) The procedure to make it requires amplification by the polymerase chain reaction.
(B) It is produced from pre-mRNA using reverse transcriptase.
(C) It can be labeled and used as a probe to detect genes expressed in the brain.
(D) It includes the introns of the pre-mRNA.
11. Expression of a cloned eukaryotic gene in a bacterial cell involves many challenges. The use of mRNA and reverse transcriptase is part of a strategy to solve the problem of
(A) post-transcriptional processing.
(B) post-translational processing.
(C) nucleic acid hybridization.
(D) restriction fragment ligation.
12. Which of the following sequences in double-stranded DNA is most likely to be recognized as a cutting site for a restriction enzyme?
(A) AAGG TTCC
(B) GGCC CCGG
(C) ACCA TGGT
(D) AAAA TTTT
13. Bioinformatics includes
(A) using DNA technology to clone genes.
(B) using computer programs to align DNA sequences.
(C) using a person’s genomic sequence to inform decision about medical treatment.
(D) amplifying DNA segments from a species’ genome.
14. Homeotic genes
(A) encode transcription factors that control the expression of genes responsible for specific anatomical structures.
(B) are found only in Drosophila and other arthropods.
(C) are the only genes that contain the homeobox domain.
(D) encode proteins that form anatomical structures in the fly.
15. Two eukaryotic proteins have one domain in common but are otherwise very different. Which of the following processes is most likely to have contributed to this similarity?
(A) gene duplication
(B) alternative splicing
(C) exon shuffling
(D) random point mutations
16. Fragments of DNA have been extracted from the remnants of extinct woolly mammoths, amplified, and sequenced. How can these fragments of DNA now be used?
A) to introduce certain mammoth traits into relatives, such as elephants
B) to clone live woolly mammoths
C) to understand the reasons why mammoths went extinct
D) to better understand the evolutionary relationships among members of related species
E) to follow carbon recycling on Earth
17. Which of the following correctly lists the processes in order for one cycle of polymerase chain reaction (PCR)?
A) denature DNA; add fresh enzyme; anneal primers; add dNTPs; extend primers
B) anneal primers; denature DNA; extend primers
C) extend primers; anneal primers; denature DNA
D) denature DNA; anneal primers; extend primers
18. Which of the following problems with animal cloning might result in premature death of the clones?
A) lack of telomeres renewal
B) use of nuclear DNA as well as mitochondrial DNA
C) abnormal gene regulation due to variant methylation
D) lack of epigenetic tag removal
E) lack of telomeres renewal and lack of epigenetic tag removal
19. Which of the following tools of recombinant DNA technology is incorrectly paired with its use?
A) restriction enzyme to find SNPs
B) primase to cut DNA to create sticky ends of restriction fragments
C) DNA polymerase to amplify sections of DNA
D) DNA amplification in PCR reaction
E) electrophoresis & separation of DNA fragments
20. Use the figure below to answer the following question.
The segment of DNA shown has restriction sites I and II, which create restriction fragments A, B, and C. Which of the gels produced by electrophoresis shown below best represents the separation and identity of these fragments?
0%
0
A)
0%
0
B)
0%
0
C)
0%
0
D)
0%
0
E)
21. The reason for using Taq polymerase for PCR is that
A) it is heat stable and can withstand the temperature changes of the cycler.
B) it is popular because of the Nobel prize for PCR.
C) it makes no mistakes during DNA replication.
D) it has regions that are complementary to primers.
22. What information is critical to the success of polymerase chain reaction (PCR) itself?
A) The DNA sequence of the ends of the DNA to be amplified must be known.
B) The complete DNA sequence of the DNA to be amplified must be known.
C) The sequence of restriction-enzyme recognition sites in the DNA to be amplified must be known.
D) The sequence of restriction-enzyme recognition sites in the DNA to be amplified and in the plasmid where the amplified DNA fragment will be cloned must be known.
23. In large scale, genome-wide studies in humans, what types of genetic markers do researchers look for?
A) lengthy sequences that are shared by most members of a population
B) SNPs where one allele is found in persons with a particular disorder but not in healthy controls
C) SNPs where one allele is found in families with a particular introns sequence
D) SNPs where one allele is found in two or more adjacent genes
24. Which of the following processes is most like the formation of identical twins?
A) cell cloning
B) therapeutic cloning
C) use of adult stem cells
D) organismal cloning
25. Among the newly discovered RNAs, which one does not contribute to gene regulation?
A) miRNA
B) mRNA
C) piRNA
D) siRNA
26. Which of the following statements correctly describes how RNA interference (RNAi) silences selected genes?
A) RNA molecules stop transcription from occurring.
B) RNA molecules stop DNA replication from occurring.
C) RNA molecules trigger the breakdown of a gene's messenger RNA.
D) RNA molecules stop mitosis from occurring.
E) RNA molecules stop mRNA transport to cytoplasm
27. Which of the following statements describes one of the technical reasons why gene therapy is problematic in humans?
A) Most cells with an engineered gene do not produce proteins.
B) Cells with transferred genes are unlikely to replicate.
C) Transferred genes do not have promoters.
D) mRNA from transferred genes cannot be translated.
E) Finding harmless virus that will only “infect” the desirable cells and “infect” all of them.
28. Reproductive cloning of human embryos is generally considered unethical. However, on the subject of therapeutic cloning, there is a wider divergence of opinion. Which of the following statements provides a likely explanation?
A) Therapeutic cloning does not destroy embryos.
B) Therapeutic cloning may lead to great medical benefits for many.
C) Cloning to produce stem cells relies on a different initial procedure than reproductive cloning.
D) A clone that lives until the blastocyst stage does not yet have human DNA.
29. In DNA technology, the term vector can refer to
A) the enzyme that cuts DNA into fragments
B) a plasmid used to transfer DNA into a living cell
C) a SNP marker
D) the sticky end of a DNA fragment
30. Which of the following tools of DNA technology is incorrectly paired with its use?
A) electrophoresis – separation of DNA fragments
B) DNA polymerase - PCR to amplify sections of DNA
C) DNA ligase – cutting DNA
D) restriction enzyme cut – to generate sticky ends
31. When attempting to introduce a particular fragment of DNA into the genome of an animal cell which of the following methods would be most successful?
A) CRISPR/Cas9 recombination
B) in vitro hybridization of the DNA with the cell's genome
C) infecting the mouse cell with a Ti plasmid
D) RNA-seq followed by genetic profiling
32. For mapping studies of genomes, most of which were far along before 2000, the 3 -stage method was often used. Which is the usual order in which the stages were performed, assuming some overlap of the three?
A) genetic map, sequencing of fragments, physical map
B) linkage map, physical map, sequencing of fragments
C) sequencing of entire genome, physical map, genetic map
D) cytogenetic linkage, sequencing, physical map
E) physical map, linkage map, sequencing
33. What is the difference between a linkage map and a physical map?
A) For a linkage map, markers are spaced by recombination frequency, whereas for a physical map they are spaced by numbers of base pairs (bp).
B) For a physical map, the ATCG order and sequence must be achieved, but not for the linkage map.
C) For a linkage map, it is shown how each gene is linked to every other gene.
D) For a physical map, the distances must be calculable in units such as nanometers.
E) There is no difference between the two except in the type of pictorial representation.
34. How is a physical map of the genome of an organism achieved?
A) using recombination frequency
B) using very high-powered microscopy
C) using restriction enzyme cutting sites
D) using sequencing of nucleotides
E) using DNA fingerprinting via electrophoresis
35. Which of the following most correctly describes a shotgun technique for sequencing a genome?
A) genetic mapping followed immediately by sequencing
B) physical mapping followed immediately by sequencing
C) cloning large genome fragments into very large vectors such as YACs, followed by sequencing
D) cloning several sizes of fragments into various size vectors, ordering the clones, and then sequencing them
E) cloning the whole genome directly, from one end to the other
36. The biggest problem with the shotgun technique is its tendency to underestimate the size of the genome. Which of the following might best account for this?
A) skipping some of the clones to be sequenced
B) missing some of the overlapping regions of the clones
C) counting some of the overlapping regions of the clones twice
D) having some of the clones die during the experiment and therefore not be represented
E) missing some duplicated sequences
37. What is bioinformatics?
A) a technique using 3D images of genes in order to predict how and when they will be expressed
B) a method that uses very large national and international databases to access and work with sequence information
C) a software program available from NIH to design genes
D) a series of search programs that allow a student to identify who in the world is trying to sequence a given species
E) a procedure that uses software to order DNA sequences in a variety of comparable
38. What is proteomics?
A) the linkage of each gene to a particular protein
B) the study of the full protein set encoded by a genome
C) the totality of the functional possibilities of a single protein
D) the study of how amino acids are ordered in a protein
E) the study of how a single gene activates many proteins
39. Bioinformatics can be used to scan sequences for probable genes looking for start and stop sites for transcription and for translation, for probable splice sites, and for sequences known to be found in other known genes. Such sequences containing these elements are called
A) expressed sequence tags.
B) cDNA.
C) multigene families.
D) proteomes.
E) short tandem repeats.
40. Why is it preferable to use large computers and databases in searching for individual genes, rather than testing each sequence for possible function?
A) Testing for function would require too many cells.
B) Testing for function would require knowing the species, its life stage, and its phylogeny.
C) Testing for function would require knowing where a particular gene starts and ends and how it is regulated.
D) Use of computer databases are intellectually less rigorous.
E) The computer data can be sent to more labs.
41. A microarray known as a GeneChip, with most now known human protein coding sequences, has recently been developed to aid in the study of human cancer by first comparing two three subsets of cancer subtypes. What kind of information might be
gleaned from this GeneChip to aid in cancer prevention?
A) information about whether or not a patient has this type of cancer prior to treatment.
B) evidence that might suggest how best to treat a person’s cancer with chemotherapy.
C) data that could alert patients to what kind of cancer they were likely to acquire.
D) information about which parent might have provided a patient with cancer-causing genes.
E) information on cancer epidemiology in the U.S. Or elsewhere.
42. Why is it unwise to try to relate an organismʹs complexity with its size or number of cells?
A) A very large organism may be composed of very few cells or very few cell types.
B) A single-celled organism, such as a bacterium or a protist, still has to conduct all the complex life functions of a large multicellular organism.
C) A single-celled organism that is also eukaryotic, such as a yeast, still reproduces mitotically.
D) A simple organism can have a much larger genome.
E) A complex organism can have a very small and simple genome.
43. Which of the following seems to be the known upper and lower size limits of genomes?
A) 1—2900 Mb (million base pairs)
B) 1,500—40,000 Mb
C) 1—580,000 Mb
D) 100—120,000 Mb
E) 100—200,000 Mb
44. If humans have 2,900 Mb, a specific member of the lily family has 120,000 Mb, and a yeast has ~13 Mb, why can’t this data allow us to order their evolutionary significance?
A) Size matters less than gene density.
B) Size does not compare to gene density.
C) Size does not vary with gene complexity.
D) Size is mostly due to ʺjunkʺ DNA.
E) Size is comparable only within phyla.
45. Which of the following is a representation of gene density?
A) Humans have 2,900 Mb per genome.
B) C. Elegans has ~20,000 genes.
C) Humans have ~25,000 genes in 2,900 Mb.
D) Humans have 27,000 bp in introns.
E) Fritillaria has a genome 40 times the size of a human.
46. Barbara McClintock, famous for discovering that genes could move within genomes, had her meticulous work ignored for nearly 4 decades, but eventually won the Nobel Prize. Why was her work so distrusted?
A) The work of women scientists was still not allowed to be published.
B) Geneticists did not want to lose their cherished notions of DNA stability.
C) There were too many alternative explanations for transposition.
D) She allowed no one else to duplicate her work.
E) She worked only with maize, which was considered ʺmerelyʺ a plant.
47. Which of the following is a major distinction between a transposon and a retrotransposon?
A) A transposon always leaves a copy of itself at its original position and a retrotransposon does not.
B) A retrotransposon always uses the copy-paste mechanism, while a transposon uses cut and paste mechanism.
C) A transposon is related to a virus and a retrotransposon is not.
D) A transposon moves via a DNA intermediate and a retrotransposon via an RNA intermediate.
E) The positioning of a transposon copy is transient while that of a retrotransposon is permanent.
48. What is the most probable explanation for the continued presence of pseudogenes in a genome such as our own?
A) They are genes that had a function at one time, but that have lost their function because they have been translocated to a new location.
B) They are genes that have accumulated mutations to such a degree that they would code for different functional products if activated.
C) They are duplicates or near duplicates of functional genes but cannot function because they would provide inappropriate dosage of protein products.
D) They are genes with significant inverted sequences.
E) They are genes that are not expressed, even though they have nearly identical sequences to expressed genes.
49. What is it about short tandem repeat DNA that makes it useful for DNA fingerprinting?
A) The number of repeats varies widely from person to person or animal to animal.
B) The sequence of DNA that is repeated varies significantly from individual to individual.
C) The sequence variation is acted upon differently by natural selection in different environments.
D) Every racial and ethnic group has inherited different short tandem repeats.
50. Alu elements account for about 10% of the human genome. What does this mean?
A) Alu elements cannot be transcribed into RNA.
B) Alu elements evolved in very ancient times, before mammalian radiation.
C) Alu elements represent the result of transposition.
D) No Alu elements are found within individual genes.
E) Alu elements are cDNA and therefore related to retrotransposons.
51. How might identical and obviously duplicated gene sequences have gotten from one chromosome to another?
A) by normal meiotic recombination
B) by normal mitotic recombination between sister chromatids
C) by transcription followed by recombination
D) by chromosomal translocation
E) by deletion followed by insertion
52. Several of the different globin genes are expressed in humans, but at different times in development. What mechanism could allow for this?
A) exon shuffling
B) intron activation
C) pseudogene activation
D) differential translation of mRNAs
E) differential gene regulation over time
53. What is it that can be duplicated in a genome?
A) DNA sequences above a minimum size only
B) DNA sequences below a minimal size only
C) entire chromosomes only
D) entire sets of chromosomes only
E) sequences, chromosomes, or sets of chromosomes
54. Homeotic genes contain a homeobox sequence that is highly conserved among very diverse species. The homeobox is the code for that domain of a protein that binds to DNA in a regulatory developmental process. Which of the following would you then expect?
A) That homeotic genes are selectively expressed over developmental time.
B) That a homeobox containing gene has to be a developmental regulator.
C) That homeoboxes cannot be expressed in non-homeotic genes.
D) That all organisms must have homeotic genes.
E) That all organisms must have homeobox containing genes.
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