Basic(1-50)
Embryology and Development Quiz
Test your knowledge of embryology and human development with this comprehensive quiz designed for students and enthusiasts alike. Covering topics from hormonal influences during ovulation to the origins of the germ layers, this quiz will challenge your understanding of critical concepts in developmental biology.
Key features of the quiz:
- 50 carefully crafted multiple-choice questions
- Focus on essential concepts in embryology
- Score tracking to measure your progress
A 23-year-old woman with a natural menstrual cycle is nearing ovulation. The oocyte of a mature follicle will be induced to undergo the first meiotic division as a result of which of the following hormonal stimuli?
A. The cessation of progesterone secretion
B. The gradual elevation of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) titers
C. The low estrogen titers associated with the maturing follicle
D. The slow elevation of progesterone produced by luteal cells
E. The surge of luteinizing hormone (LH) initiated by high estrogen titers
Cells that form the three primitive germ layers are derived from which of the following?
A. Cytotrophoblast
B. Epiblast
C. Syncytiotrophoblast
D. Hypoblast
E. Yolk sac
In the developing human embryo/fetus, most of the internal organs begin to form in which month?
A. First
B. Second
C. Fourth
D. Sixth
E. Ninth
The ectoderm is derived directly from which of the following?
A. Hypoblast
B. Epiblastic cells that undergo gastrulation
C. Mesoderm
D. Endoderm
E. Nongastrulated epiblast
Fetal blood from the placenta is about 80% oxygenated. However, mix- ture with unoxygenated blood at various points reduces the oxygen content. Which of the following fetal vessels contains blood with the highest oxygen content?
A. Abdominal aorta
B. Common carotid arteries
C. Ductus arteriosus
D. Pulmonary artery
E. Pulmonary vein
Which of the following hematopoietic tissues or organs develops from endoderm?
A. Thymus
B. Tonsils
C. Bone marrow
D. Spleen
E. Blood islands
Which of the following processes places the developing heart in the presumptive thoracic region cranial to the septum transversum?
A. Gastrulation
B. Lateral folding
C. Cranial folding
D. Neurulation
E. Fusion of the endocardial heart tubes
Which of the following is in direct contact with maternal blood in lacunae of the placenta?
A. Cells of the cytotrophoblast
B. Extraembryonic mesoderm
C. Fetal blood vessels
D. Cells of the syncytiotrophoblast
E. Amniotic cells
During a visit to her gynecologist, a patient reports she received vita- min A treatment for her acne unknowingly during the first 2 months of an undetected pregnancy. Which of the following organ systems in the developing fetus is most likely to be affected?
A. The digestive system
B. The endocrine organs
C. The respiratory system
D. The urinary and reproductive systems
E. The skeletal and central nervous systems
The neural plate forms directly from which of the following?
A. Ectoderm
B. Endoderm
C. Somatopleuric mesoderm
D. Splanchnopleuric mesoderm
E. Hypoblast
Which of the following forms from paraxial mesoderm?
A. Adrenal cortex
B. Adrenal medulla
C. Humerus
D. Biceps brachii
E. Masseter
The cerebral cortex forms from which of the following?
A. Telencephalon
B. Myelencephalon
C. Metencephalon
D. Mesencephalon
E. Diencephalon
The primordial germ cells that eventually form the oogonia and sper- matogonia originate in which of the following?
A. Dorsal mesentery of the hindgut
B. Gonadal ridge
C. Endodermal lining of the yolk sac
D. Primary sex cords of the developing gonad
E. Chorion
Monozygotic twins arise by means of which of the following?
A. Fusion of the embryonic blastomeres from two zygotes
B. Fertilization of two oocytes by two sperm
C. Fertilization of one oocyte by two sperm
D. Division of the inner cell mass (embryoblast) into two embryonic primordia
E. Extra cleavage divisions of the zygote induced by the presence of a double chorion
In the developing embryo, the edge of the ectoderm is continuous with which of the following?
A. Chorion
B. Amniotic membrane
C. Yolk sac lining
D. Extraembryonic mesoderm
E. Adventitia of the umbilical vessels
Which of the following processes is responsible for fusion of the paired dorsal aortae?
A. Lateral folding
B. Craniocaudal folding
C. Looping of the heart tube
D. Neurulation
E. Gastrulation
The asymmetry of the cell membrane is established primarily by which of the following?
A. Membrane synthesis in the endoplasmic reticulum
B. Membrane modification in the Golgi apparatus
C. Presence of carbohydrates on the cytoplasmic surface
D. The distribution of cholesterol
E. Flipping proteins between the leaflets of the lipid bilayer
Which of the following is the function of the large subunit of the ribosome?
A. Bind messenger RNA (mRNA)
B. Bind transfer RNA (tRNA)
C. Catalyze peptide bond formation
D. Link adjacent ribosomes in a polyribosome
E. Initiate protein synthesis
The stability and arrangement of actin filaments as well as their prop- erties and functions depend on which of the following?
A. The structure of the actin filaments
B. Microtubules
C. Intermediate filament proteins
D. Actin-binding proteins
E. Motor molecules, such as kinesin
The primary function of intermediate filaments is which of the following?
A. Generate movement
B. Provide mechanical stability
C. Carry out nucleation of microtubules
D. Stabilize microtubules against disassembly
E. Transport organelles within the cell
Which of the following mechanisms is used to establish the mito- chondrial electrochemical gradient?
A. The action of ATP synthase
B. Transfer of electrons from NADH to O2 in the intermembrane space
C. Pumping of protons into the mitochondrial matrix by respiratory chain activity
D. Proton-translocating activity in the inner membrane
E. Transport of ATP out of the matrix compartment by a specific transporter
Endocytosis of low-density lipoprotein (LDL) differs from phagocytosis of damaged cells in which of the following?
A. Use of membrane-enclosed vesicles in the uptake process
B. Coupling with the lysosomal system
C. Dependence on acidification
D. Use of clathrin-coated pits
E. Use of hydrolases
Patients with Cushing’s syndrome often show osteoporotic changes. Which of the following is involved in the etiology of osteoporosis induced by Cushing’s syndrome?
A. Decreased glucocorticoid levels that result in decreased quality of the bone deposited
B. Excess deposition of osteoid
C. Stimulation of intestinal calcium absorption
D. Decreased PTH levels
E. Bone fragility resulting from excess bone resorption
A 5-year-old boy sustains a tear in his gastrocnemius muscle when he is involved in a bicycle accident. Regeneration of the muscle will occur through which of the following? A. Differentiation of satellite cells
A. Differentiation of satellite cells
B. Dedifferentiation of myocytes into myoblasts
C. Fusion of damaged myofibers to form new myotubes
D. Hyperplasia of existing myofibers
E. Differentiation of fibroblasts to form myocytes
Which of the following is the primary regulator of salivary secretion?
A. Antidiuretic hormone
B. Autonomic nervous system
C. Aldosterone
D. Cholecystokinin
E. Secretin
A 4-day-old boy weighing 7 lb, 6 oz is brought to the emergency room by his parents. The examining emergency room physician notes that his skin and sclerae are icteric. A blood test indicates elevated unconju- gated bilirubin in the serum. The elevated bilirubin levels in this patient are most likely the result of which of the following?
A. Deficiency of enzymes regulating bilirubin solubility
B. Hepatocellular proliferation
C. Decreased destruction of red blood cells
D. Dilation of the common bile duct
E. Increased hepatocyte uptake of bilirubin
A 43-year-old man who recently returned from a trip to rural Peru presents with severe watery diarrhea, vomiting, and dehydration. He also has marked leg cramps and has lost 8 lb since his return from the trip. Fecal culture is positive for V. cholerae. How does this bacterium exert its effect?
A. Activation of enterokinase on the brush border of epithelial cells
B. Activation of cholecystokinin effects on pancreatic secretion
C. Closure of chloride channels in the enterocyte cell membrane
D. Inhibition of cyclic AMP in the enterocytes
E. ADP-ribosylation of GS of the GTP-binding protein in enterocytes
The adrenal cortex influences the secretion of the adrenal medulla by means of which of the following?
A. Secretion of aldosterone into the intra-adrenal circulation
B. Secretion of glucocorticoids into the intra-adrenal circulation
C. Autonomic neural connections
D. Secretion of monoamine oxidase into the portal circulation
E. Secretion of androgens into the intrarenal circulation
A pituitary adenoma is likely to result in which of the following?
A. Cushing’s syndrome
B. Deficiency in T3 and T4
C. Diabetes insipidus
D. Osteoporosis
E. Stunted growth or dwarfism
Elevated estrogen levels during the menstrual cycle result in which of the following?
A. Decrease LH levels
B. Downregulate FSH receptors on granulosa cells
C. Increase FSH levels
D. Increase the ciliation of the epithelial cells of the oviduct
E. Decrease synthesis and storage of glycogen in the vaginal epithelium
Which of the following is independent of testosterone or other androgens?
A. Secretion from the prostatic epithelium
B. The function of the prostatic glands
C. Development of the penis from an indifferent phallus
D. Spermatogenesis
E. Fetal testis development from an indifferent gonad
A 26-year-old woman is in her last trimester of a normal pregnancy. Synthesis of milk by her mammary glands specifically requires which of the following?
A. Oxytocin from the neurohypophysis
B. Prolactin from the corpus luteum
C. The influence of vasopressin
D. Placental lactogen
E. Neurohumoral reflexes
In a patient with diabetes mellitus of 30 years’ duration, complica- tions related to kidney function may include which of the following?
A. Enhanced selectivity of the filtration barrier
B. Decreased permeability to plasma proteins
C. Increased glomerular filtration rate
D. Decreased secretion of aldosterone
E. Glycation of proteins in the basal lamina
Which of the following is found exclusively in the renal medulla?
A. Proximal convoluted tubules
B. Distal convoluted tubules
C. Collecting ducts
D. Afferent arterioles
E. Thin loops of Henle
The retinal pigment epithelium (RPE) is characterized by which of the following?
A. The presence of the photoreceptor (rod and cone) perikarya
B. Phagocytosis of worn-out components of photoreceptor cells
C. Origin from the inner layer of the optic cup during embryonic development
D. Presence of amacrine cells
E. Synthesis of vitreous humor
Which of the following occurs in diabetic retinopathy?
A. Reduction in the thickness of the basal lamina of small retinal vessels
B. Microaneurysms
C. Decreased capillary permeability
D. Increased retinal blood flow
E. Loss of phagocytic ability of the pigmented epithelium
The direction in which vestibular hair cell stereocilia are deflected is important for which of the following reasons?
A. Differentiates between type I and type II hair cells
B. Determines whether cells are depolarized or hyperpolarized
C. Determines whether linear or angular acceleration is detected
D. Determines the direction of blood flow in the stria vascularis
E. Is determined by the frequency of the sound
Perilymph is located in which of the following structures?
A. Utricle
B. Saccule
C. Semicircular canals
D. Scala media
E. Scala tympani
Which of the following is the function of the vestibular membrane?
A. Maintain the gradient between the endolymph and the perilymph
B. Maintain communication between the tympanic and vestibular cavities
C. Transmit sound to the oval window
D. Maintain the concentration gradient necessary for sensory transduction
E. Dampen the action of the auditory ossicles
A carcinoma in the medial portion of the lower lip is most likely to first metastasize via which of the following lymph nodes?
A. Submandibular
B. Parotid
C. Superficial cervical
D. Submental
E. Buccal
Which pair of venous structures contributes to the confluence of dural sinuses on the interior surface of the occipital bone?
A. Sigmoid and transverse sinuses
B. Inferior sagittal and cavernous sinuses
C. Occipital and straight sinuses
D. Transverse and inferior petrosal sinuses
E. Superior petrosal and occipital sinuses
Which of the following is the most direct route for spread of infection from the paranasal sinuses to the cavernous sinus of the dura mater?
A. Pterygoid venous plexus
B. Superior ophthalmic vein
C. Frontal emissary vein
D. Basilar venous plexus
E. Parietal emissary vein
The course of the vertebral arteries is best described by which of the following statements?
A. They arise from the common carotid artery on the left and the arachiocephalic artery on the right
B. They enter the cranium via the anterior condylar canals
C. They enter the cranium via the posterior condylar canals
D. They pass through the transverse processes of several cervical vertebrae
E. They directly give rise to the posterior cerebral arteries
In dislocation of the jaw, displacement of the articular disk beyond the articular tubercle of the temporomandibular joint results from spasm or excessive contraction of which of the following muscles?
A. Buccinator
B. Lateral pterygoid
C. Medial pterygoid
D. Masseter
Like all endocrine glands, the thyroid is highly vascular. The thyroid gland normally receives its blood supply, in part, from branches off which of the following?
A. Internal carotid artery
B. Lingual artery
C. Subclavian artery
D. Transverse cervical artery
E. Vertebral artery
An 85-year old woman comes into your family practice office because she says she is losing weight and she is having trouble chewing. Which of the following muscles is a pure elevator of the jaw?
A. Buccinator muscle
B. Geniohyoid muscle
C. Lateral pterygoid muscle
D. Medial pterygoid muscle
E. Posterior fibers of temporalis muscle
Pain referred to the right side of the neck and extending laterally from the right clavicle to the tip of the right shoulder is most likely to involve which of the following?
A. Cervical cardiac accelerator nerves
B. Posterior vagal trunk
C. Right intercostal nerves
D. Right phrenic nerve
E. Right recurrent laryngeal nerve
The intercostal neurovascular bundle is particularly vulnerable to injury from fractured ribs because it is found in which of the following locations?
A. Above the superior border of the ribs, anteriorly
B. Beneath the inferior border of the ribs
C. Between external and internal intercostal muscle layers
D. Deep to the posterior intercostal membrane
E. Superficial to the ribs, anteriorly
The major venous return system of the heart, the coronary sinus, empties into which of the following structures?
A. Inferior vena cava
B. Left atrium
C. Right atrium
D. Right ventricle
E. Superior vena cava
A 36-year-old male office worker comes to the clinic complaining of general weakness and shortness of breath. He also relates a rapid, throbbing pulse after climbing a flight of stairs. Cardiac auscultation reveals a diastolic rumbling murmur attributable to the mitral valve. The mitral valve is best heard where?
A. Left side adjacent to the sternum in the second intercostal space
B. Left side adjacent to the sternum in the fifth intercostal space
C. Left side in the midclavicular line in the fifth intercostal space
D. Right side adjacent to the sternum in the second intercostal space
E. Right side adjacent to the sternum in the fourth intercostal space
{"name":"Basic(1-50)", "url":"https://www.quiz-maker.com/QPREVIEW","txt":"Test your knowledge of embryology and human development with this comprehensive quiz designed for students and enthusiasts alike. Covering topics from hormonal influences during ovulation to the origins of the germ layers, this quiz will challenge your understanding of critical concepts in developmental biology.Key features of the quiz:50 carefully crafted multiple-choice questionsFocus on essential concepts in embryologyScore tracking to measure your progress","img":"https:/images/course5.png"}