Doung Daraith

A pediatrician holding a medication bottle while standing in a hospital with children in the background, emphasizing pediatric care and pharmacology.

Pediatric Pharmacology Quiz

Test your knowledge in pediatric pharmacology with this comprehensive quiz. Covering essential concepts related to drug absorption, dosage adjustments, and physiological differences in various age groups, this quiz is designed for healthcare professionals and students alike.

  • Understand the unique pharmacokinetics in infants and elderly patients
  • Evaluate your grasp of important drug interactions and metabolic pathways
  • Challenge yourself with targeted questions
49 Questions12 MinutesCreated by CuriousDoctor512
1. Child is related to what age?
A. first 30 days
B. 1 month – 1 year
C. 1 year – 12 years
D. 12 years – 18 years
2. 60% of EC volume drop in what age?
A. first 30 days
B. 1 month – 1 year
C. 1 year – 12 years
D. 12 years – 18 years
3. What drug is well absorbed in neonate than in adult?
A. digoxin
B. PNC
C. phenobarbital
D. acetaminophen
4. What is the result of absorption of drug while gastric emptying and intestinal motility are low in infant
A. decreased
B. increased
C. prolonged
D. Not changed
5. What is the absorption of vitamin D in infant?
A. decreased
B. increased
C. prolonged
D. Not changed
6. What physiologic effect in infant influence on vitamin D absorption?
A. pH neutral
B. Gastric empty low
C. Bile salt low
D. Intestinal low
7. What dosage of Gentamycin should be adjust in period of growing to avoid toxicity?
A. increased
B. decreased
C. No need to be changed
8. In neonate binding protein drugs should be given with what dose?
A. high
B. moderate
C. small
21. Noradrenaline acts trough what kind of receptor?
A. ionotropic receptor
B. Metabotropic receptor
C. Enzyme receptor
D. Intracellular receptor
9. What conjugation is low in neonate to give baby syndrome while prescribe chloramphenicol?
A. acetate
B. sulfate
C. glucuronate
D. glutathione
10. Renal system undergoes active maturation during what year of life?
A. first
B. second
C. third
D. forth
11. Which of aging effect that make the volume of distribution of digoxin decreased?
A. Decreased body water
B. Decreased lean body mass
C. Decreased albumin
D. Increased fat store
E. increased α1 acid glycoprotein
12. Which of aging effect that make the volume of distribution of erythromycin decreased?
A. Decreased body water
B. Decreased lean body mass
C. Decreased albumin
D. Increased fat store
E. increased α1 acid glycoprotein
13. What metabolic pathway of drug is preferred to the elderly?
A. reduction
B. oxidation
C. alkylation
D. glucuronidation
14. How we use to decrease the risk of drug’s toxicity?
A. combination
B. Rapid titration
C. Low dose
D. Short interval
15. The valium haft life increase due to what age relate changes?
A. Low serum albumin
B. Increased fat
C. Decreased body water
D. Decreased liver blood flow
16. What drug have narrow therapeutic index to be dangerous to the elderly patient?
A. digoxin
B. NSAID
C. Ampicillin
D. β blocker
17. What strategy improve adherence in elderly?
A. simplicity
B. education
C. poly-medication
D. Over the counter
18. What is the cause of poly-therapy?
A. Making efficacy
B. Non compliance
C. self-medication
D. Error diagnosis
19. What cause the adverse effect of fat soluble drug
A. Slow gastric emptying
B. Decreased volume distribution
C. Increased volume distribution
D. Increased hepatic clearance
E. Increased renal clearance
20. What cause the adverse effect of water soluble drug?
A. Slow gastric emptying
B. Decreased volume distribution
C. Increased volume distribution
D. Increased hepatic clearance
E. Increased renal clearance
22. Cortisol acts trough what kind of receptor?
A. ionotropic receptor
B. Metabotropic receptor
C. Enzyme receptor
D. Intracellular receptor
23. Co-transport Na+ – K+ – 2Cl- in the Henle loop is classify into what kind of transporter?
A. Primary active transport
B. Secondary active transport
C. Passive transport
D. Facilitated passive transport
24. Pump Na+ – K+ ATPase is classify into what kind of transporter?
A. Primary active transport
B. Secondary active transport
C. Passive transport
D. Facilitated passive transport
25. Calcium channel blocker achieves its pharmacologic effect through what mechanism?
A. Binding to ionotropic receptor
B. Binding to synthetic enzyme
C. Binding to calcium channel
D. Binding to angiotensin converting enzyme
26. Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor achieves its pharmacologic effect through what mechanism?
A. Binding to ionotropic receptor
B. Binding to converting enzyme
C. Binding to ion channels
D. Binding metabotropic receptor
27. Hypertonic glucose solution give rise to diuresis through what mechanism?
A. Block epithelial Na+ channel ENaC
B. Binding to intracellular receptor of principal cell
C. inhibit Na+ – K+ – 2Cl-
D. Osmosis effect
28. What quality of drug is to be said high affinity to its target?
A. Rate of dissociation [Kd] is low
B. Rate of dissociation [Kd] is medium
C. Rate of dissociation [Kd] is high
D. Rate of dissociation [Kd] is very high
29. What properties of a drug is to be said antagonist?
A. High affinity to receptor with maximal response
B. High affinity to receptor with no response
C. High affinity to receptor with submaximal response
D. Low affinity to receptor with no response
30. What properties of a drug is to be said full antagonist
A. High affinity to receptor with maximal response
B. High affinity to receptor with no response
C. High affinity to receptor with submaximal response
D. Low affinity to receptor with no response
31. When partial agonist drug is given with full agonist drug, what is the dynamic interaction as a result?
A. synergic
B. additive
C. competitive
D. inverse
32. What is the properties of a drug with full agonist and low potency
A. EC50 high + response maximal
B. EC50 low + response maximal
C. EC50 high + response submaximal
D. EC50 low + response submaximal
33. What is the properties of a drug with full agonist and high potency
A. EC50 high + response maximal
B. EC50 low + response maximal
C. EC50 high + response submaximal
D. EC50 low + response submaximal
34. What is the properties of a drug with partial agonist but high potency
A. EC50 high + response maximal
B. EC50 low + response maximal
C. EC50 high + response submaximal
D. EC50 low + response submaximal
35. Weak acid is well excreted in what milieu?
A. alkaline
B. acid
C. Higher acid
D. Higher alkaline
36. Weak base is well excreted in what milieu?
A. alkaline
A. alkaline
C. Higher acid
D. Higher alkaline
37. Interaction of probenecid administrated with cephalosporin is done through what process through transporters or enzymes?
A. P glycoprotein
B. Cytochrome P450
C. Albumin transporter
D. Organic Anion Transporter
38. Interaction of Digoxin combined with Quinidine is done through what process?
A. P glycoprotein
B. Cytochrome P450
C. Albumin transporter
D. Organic Anion Transporter
39. What is the management to avoid interaction of tetracycline with calcium?
A. Give one drugs on hour before another
B. Increase dose of one drug
C. Decrease dose of one drug
D. Avoid concurrent therapy
40. What is the management to avoid interaction of rifampicin with oral contraceptive?
A. Give one drugs on hour before another
B. Increase dose of affected drug
C. Decrease dose of precipitant drug
D. Avoid concurrent therapy
42. What is the management to avoid interaction of rifampicin with warfarin?
A. Give one drugs on hour before another
B. Increase dose of affected drug
C. Decrease dose of precipitant drug
D. Avoid concurrent therapy
43. How many haft life of drug we should give in order to get its plasma concentration to reach the steady state?
2
3
4
5
44. What is the haft life formula owing to K = constant of elimination?
A. T ½ = ln2/K
B. T ½ = K/ln2
C. T ½ = K/ln3
D. T ½ = ln3/K
45. What is the effect of NSAID + Warfarin?
A. Hyper coagulation
B. Hypo coagulation
C. Increased inflammation
D. Decreased inflammation
46. In an intoxication of aspirin what urine pH is best required to excrete the drug?
A. pH 3
B. pH 4
C. pH 6
D. pH 8
47. What combination should be avoid in a patient with ischemic heart disease?
A. sildenafil + nitrate
B. sildenafil + β blocker
C. Prostaglandin + nitrate
D. Prostaglandin + β blocker
48. If a distribution volume of a drug is large what is the attack dose we should administer?
A. low
B. moderate
C. high
49. Give the equation for maintenance dose?
A. D = distribution volume x effective plasma concentration
B. D = Clearance x effective plasma concentration
C. D = Clearance/effective plasma concentration
D. D = distribution volume /effective plasma concentration
50. What drug is eliminated by zero order?
A. ampicillin
B. aspirin
C. diazepam
D. digoxin
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