HESI 1

Under which classification of gingival diseases and conditions is puberty-associated gingivitis found?
Non-plaque induced gingival diseases of viral orgin.
Non-plaque induced gingival manifestations by traumatic lesions
Plaque induced gingival diseases modified by systemic factors.
Plaque induced gingival diseases modified by medications.
A patient presents with a short, thick lingual frenum that results in limited tongue movement affecting speech. Which is teh most likely diagnosis of this condition?
Beckwith-Wiedemann Syndrome
Ankyloglossia
Macroglossia
Hemifacial hyperplasia
When is tooth eruption complete?
Root is completely covered with cementum
Tooth has made contact with its antagonists in opposing jaw
crown is complete and emerges from alveolar gingiva
Root formation in complete
When does mixed dentition begin?
Shedding of first primary tooth
Eruption of first primary tooth
Shedding of last primary tooth
Eruption of first permanent tooth
What is the number of successional (succedaneous) teeth in the permanent dentition?
24
20
30
32
The junction of a buccal and lingual triangular ridge is a transverse ridge. The oblique ridge of a molar is a transverse ridge.
The first statement is false and the second is true.
Both statements are false.
Both statements are true.
The first statement is true and the second is false.
Which factor makes aging enamel less susceptible to caries?
Reduced permeability.
Regeneration.
Discoloration
Decreased fluoride content
Which groove is the most identifying characteristic of a three-cusp mandibular second premolar?
Central
buccal
Distolingual
Mesial
Which is true regarding the height of contour of a tooth?
Location is on mesial or distal surfaces.
Also considered cementoenamel junction
Greatest elevation of tooth either incisocervically or occlusocervically
Involves area of least contour on tooth surface.
How many primary and permanent teeth are typically present in an eight-year-old child?
14 primary, 10 permanent
20 primary; 4 permanent teeth.
18 primary; 6 permanent teeth.
16 primary; 8 permanent teeth.
Which describes the junction of two surfaces of a crown?
Line angle
Point angle
Cementoenamel junction
Cementoenamel junction
Which G. V. Black classification involves the proximal surfaces of anterior teeth including the incisal edge or angle?
IV
V
II
VII
Which ridge is a unique characteristic of permanent maxillary molars?
Distal marginal
Transverse
Oblique
Mesial marginal
Which division of the fifth cranial nerve innervates the temporomandibular joint?
Zygomatic
Mandibular
Ophthalmic
Maxillary
Facial paralysis can result from damage to the motor neurons of which cranial nerve?
V
VII
IV
VI
Which is the target area for the inferior alveolar nerve block?
Mandibular foramen on medial surface of mandible
Lingual foramen on lingual surface of mandible
Infraorbital foramen on anterior surface of maxilla
Mental foramen on lateral surface on mandible
Which salivary gland is unencapsulated?
Lacrimal
Submandibular
Parotid
Sublingual
Which type of joint is the temporomandibular joint?
Fibrous
Cartilaginous
Synovial
Gomphosis
Which peripheral nervous system and subdivision are responsible for a shutdown of salivary gland secretion?
Autonomic; parasympathetic
Autonomic; sympathetic
Somatic; parasympathetic
Somatic; parasympathetic
Destroyed enamel cannot reform since the cells that formed it no longer exist. Cavitated enamel can repair itself by the incorporation of calcium and phosphate ions from saliva.
both statements are false
The first statement is false and teh second is true.
The first statement is true and teh second is false.
Both statements are true.
Which bacterium is most important in causing the progression of carious lesions?
Acid-fast
Aerobic
Aciduric
Anaerobic
Anaerobe bacteria
Multiply in the presence or absence of oxygen
Require oxygen for growth
Tolerate only low levels of oxygen
Grow only in teh absence of oxygen.
Which bacterial structure interferes with phagocytosis?
Cell wall
Cytoplasmic membrane
Flagellum
Capsule
Which bacteria grow best in refrigerated conditions?
Acidophils
Psychrophils
Mesophils
Thermophils
Endotoxin is a virulence property of
Gram-negative bacteria
DNA viruses
Filamentous fungi
yeasts
When comparing viruses to bacteria, viruses
Causes diseases that can be treated with antibiotics
Have one of three distinct shapes--coccoid, cylindrical rod, or spiral.
. Are much larger
Enter host cells before they can multiply
Which is treated with nystatin?
Candidiasis
Dental caries
Actinomycosis
Tuberculosis
Which is detected in the blood within two months after successful immunization iwth the hepatitis B vaccine?
HBs antigen
HBc antifgen
Anti-HBs
Anti-HBe
Which hypersensitivity reaction is an allergy to the natural rubber latex in examination gloves?
III
IV
II
I
Each of the following is an antituberculin agent EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
Nizoral
Isoniazid
Rifampin
Ethambutol
Which bacterial genus contains species taht causes rheumatic fever, scarlet fever, and pharyngitis?
Lactobacillus
Staphylococcus
Streptococcus
Actinomyces
Which condition warrants antibiotic premedication?
Bicuspid valve disease
Repaired congenital heart disease
Mitral Valve Prolapse
Atrial septal defect
It is noted on teh medical history the patient has mitral valve prolapse, a stent, rheumatic heart disease, and a renal dialysis shunt. For which condition dose the patient require antibiotic premedication?
Renal dialysis shunt
Mitral Valve prolapse
Rheumatic heart disease
Stent
A patient's prescription has teh abbreviate "qid". How frequently should the medicaiton be taken?
Four times a day
Twice a day
Once a day
3x a day
Which schedule of controlled substance is indicated when a prescription states, No refills?
IV
III
II
I
Which vitamin deficiency results from long-term recreational abuse of nitrous oxide?
Ascorbic Acid.
Riboflavin
Niacin.
Cobalamin
Each of the following is a calcium blocking agent EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
Verapamil
Propranolol
Nifedipine
Norvasc
Which food is a good source of Vitamin K?
Strawberries
Sweet potatoes
Milk
Kale
Which medication is administered to manage an acute asthma attack?
Albuterol
Flunsolide
Budesonide
Fluticasone
Lipitor is a/an:
ACE inhibitor
Corticosteroid
Anticholinergic
Statin
Consuming foods high in retinols will help prevent night blindness because vitamin D helps absorb calcium.
Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.
Both the statement and reason are correct but not related.
The statement is correct, but the reason is not.
The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.
both the statement and reason are correct and related.
Which meal lacks an excellent source of vitamin C?
Pork chop, broccoli, rice
Hamburger, french fries, strawberries
spaghetti with tomato sauce, garlic bread, cantaloupe
Steak, brown rice, corn
Which element is found in proteins and not carbohydrates?
oxygen
Iron
nitrogen
Carbon
Some of vitamin K requirements are met through the synthesis of
Sunlight
Sunlight
Intestinal bacteria
Calcium
Which vitamin is associated with the deficiency beriberi?
Riboflavin
Thiamin
Biotin
Niacin
Which is primarily responsible for pharmacologic metabolism?
Stomach
kidney
liver
Skin
Which procedure establishes teh most definitive diagnosis for oral cancer?
chemiluminescent light test
brush biopsy
toluidine blue dye test
Scalpel biopsy
A 17-year-old presents for third molar evaluation. The panoramic radiograph reveals the apical third of roots #1 and #2 have fused together. Which best defines this anomaly?
Dilaceration
anodontia
Gemination
Concrescence
A patient's intraoral examination reveals a well-circumscribed, raised lesion along the lateral border of the tongue. The lesion is soft, deep purple and measures approximately 2 mm in diameter. The patient believes it first appeared after accidentally biting the tongue. Which best defines the lesion?
. Gumma
Papilloma
Hemangioma
Adenoma
Intraoral lesions may occur with each of the following conditions EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
Chickenpox
Kaposi sarcoma
Basal cell carcinoma
Infectious mononucleosis
Which infections disease is NOT caused by thecoxsackievirus?
hand-foot-and-mouth disease
Acute lymphonodular pharyngitis
Herpangina
Verruca vulgaris
In which region dose an early symptom of measles appear?
Soft palate
Attached gingiva
Buccal mucosa
Floor of teh mouth
A pregnant woman reports a freely moveable, deep red tissue mass, which extends from teh labial gingiva between maxillary right premolars. The surface of the lesion is ulcerated and bleeds easily. A histologic analysis indicates teh lesion is composed of connective tissue, capillaries and inflammatory cells. Which best defines teh lesion?
Topical timolol
Pyogenic granuloma
Fibroma
Pleomorphic adenoma
A patient's buccal mucosa exhibits tiny white nodules connected by slender raised lines in a lace-like pattern. This finding is a clinical manifestations of:
Linea alba
Lichen planus
Fordyce granulomas
Leukoplakia
The parents of a 7 year old are concerned by the development of a soft, blue, vesicle-like swelling on teh gingiva where tooth #8 is expected to erupt. No significant radiographic findings exist other than the partial eruption of tooth #8. Which course of action is recommended?
Remove cystic lesion and tooth
Excise cyst, then perform a thorough osseous curettage
No treatment is required; the cyst will dissipate naturally
Remove, biopsy and obtain histologic examination of cystic lesion
Which best describes the etiology of pemphigus vulgaris?
viral infection
Smoking
Autoimmune response
. trauma
The most common tumor of the salivary glands is ranula. A ranula is clinically found on teh floor of the mouth.
The first statement in true and teh second is fals
Both statements are true
Both statements are false
The first statement is false and teh second is true.
During pregnancy, when do most embryonic cleft malformations occur?
First trimester
Third trimester
second trimester
At birth
Where is chronic atrophic candidiasis most likely found?
Tongue
Buccal mucosa
Interdental papilla
Palate
Which description best explains the phenomenon of referred pain?
Psychosomatic
Location of pain receptors
Convergence of sensory nerve impulses
Thermoreceptor conflict with exteroceptors.
Which results will ensue if a kilovolt peak below 65 is used when exposing radiographs?
Exposure to radiation is increased.
overall darker film density results
Focal-film distance must be increased
Diagnostic digital image does not result
Each of the following compounds is used to fluoridate domestic water systems EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
Sodium fluoride
Acidulated phosphate.
Sodium silicofluoride.
Hydrofluorosilicic acid.
Most dental sealants placed are self cured because this process allows for a longer working time for the operator.
NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct
both the statement and reason are correct, but not related
The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct
Both the statement and reason are correct and related
Each of the following patients would benefit from prescription fluoride supplements EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
16-year-old male living in a community where the fluoride level in the water supply is 0.5 ppm.
7-month-old female who receives her total dietary intake from breast milk.
5-year-old male living in a community where the fluoride level in the water supply is 0.2 ppm.
33-year-old female in her second trimester of pregnancy who drinks unfluoridated water.
In addition to bleeding, which other characteristic best describes a mild case of gingivitis?
Mobility.
Presence of fibrotic gingival tissues and cementum exposure.
Areas of pseudopocking.
Pocket depths measuring 6mm.
Each of the following is true concerning professionally applied topical fluoride in a tray EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
Ask patient to rinse thoroughly following the application to prevent ingestion.
Apply fluoride for 4 minutes.
Dispense 2 ml of fluoride in tray.
Use saliva ejector to help hold trays in place.
Which most effectively identifies plaque biofilm on tooth surfaces?
Study cast.
Reading materials.
Discussion with clinician.
Disclosing agent.
Mobility is a risk factor for periodontal disease progression. Mobility is measured using bidigital evaluation when teeth are not occluded.
The first statement is false and the second is true.
Both statements are false.
Both statements are true.
The first statement is true and the second is false.
After taking a periapical of tooth #24 using the paralleling technique, the dental hygienist notices the image appears elongated. How would the dental hygienist correct this error?
Increase positive vertical angulation
Decrease negative vertical angulation.
Increase negative vertical angulatio
Decrease positive vertical angulation.
A patient in her seventh month of pregnancy begins to feel nauseous during the dental prophylaxis. Suddenly, the patient begins to sweat and starts gasping for air. What is the patient experiencing?
Postprandial hypotensio
Supine hypotensive syndrome
Neurally mediated hypotension
Orthostatic hypotension.
Which vaccination does the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) requires employers to offer all personnel at risk of exposure to blood and other potentially infectious materials?
Hepatitis B.
Varicella-zoster.
Influenza.
Rubella.
The Hepatitis B virus (HBV) is transmitted through ingestion of foods or water contaminated by an infected person. The Hepatitis A virus (HAV) virus is transmitted through blood, blood products, or body fluids.
Both statements are true.
The first statement is true and the second is false.
The first statement is false and the second is true.
Both statements are false.
Which pathogen is transmitted via inhalation of airborne droplet nuclei?
Staphylococci aureus.
Hepatitis B.
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Human immunodeficiency virus.
Each of the following medical emergencies indicates administration of oxygen EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
Syncope.
Postural hypotension.
Hyperventilation.
Angina pectoris.
Which sound results from a bronchospasm that occurs during an asthmatic attack?
Crackling.
Rattling.
Bubbling.
Wheezing.
Which oral physiotherapy is indicated for a patient with type I embrasures?
Toothpick holder.
Dental floss
Wooden wedge
Interproximal brush.
The exaggerated inflammatory response of gingival tissues to local irritants that can occur during pregnancy is commonly known as pregnancy gingivitis. This exaggerated response of gingival tissues is due to an increase in the systemic level of the hormone testosterone.
The first statement is true and the second is false.
Both statements are true.
The first statement is false and the second is true.
Both statements are false.
Where on the learning-ladder continuum does a patient recognize a problem and indicate a tentative inclination toward action?
Awareness.
Involvement.
Self-interest.
Action.
Where on the learning-ladder continuum does a patient institute a new behavior?
Involvement.
Awareness.
Self-interest.
Action.
Where on the learning ladder is the patient motivated to act on the information provided?
Self-interest.
Awareness.
Action.
Involvement
Dental needles are available in three lengths: long, short and ultrashort. The lower the gauge number of the needle, the smaller the diameter of the lumen.
The first statement is false and the second is true.
The first statement is true and the second is false.
Both statements are true.
Both statements are false.
Which is the most common desensitizing agent found in over-the-counter dentifrices?
Glutaraldehyde.
Hydrogen Peroxide
Triclosan.
Potassium nitrate
Pain threshold is the point at which an uncomfortable stimulus is perceived as painful. Pain tolerance is the maximum amount of pain a person can tolerate.
Both statements are false
The first statement is false and the second is true.
The first statement is true and the second is false.
Both statements are true.
Which preservative ingredient is in local anesthetics?
Sodium bisulfite.
Epinephrine.
Sodium chloride.
Distilled water.
Which strategy should be implemented for a patient who presents with a sustained blood pressure reading of 160/100 mm Hg with no previous history of hypertension?
Proceed with treatment because patient has no history of hypertension.
Delay treatment for 10 minutes until patient has time to rest.
Continue with treatment and recheck blood pressure at end of appointment.
Postpone treatment and refer patient to physician of record.
Which oral hygiene index includes all teeth in the assessment and is used for plaque visualization and oral hygiene motivation?
Simplified Oral Hygiene Index (OHI-S).
Patient Hygiene Performance (PHP).
O'Leary's Plaque Control Record.
Oral Debris Index (DI).
Which is classified as an acquired disability?
Cerebral palsy.
Chromosomal abnormality.
Fetal alcohol syndrome.
Multiple sclerosis.
Which is a developmental disability?
Traumatic head injury.
Multiple sclerosis.
Chromosomal abnormality.
Arthritis.
Which should be obtained when physical restraint is recommended for patient safety during a dental procedure?
Implied approval.
Informed refusal.
Implied consent.
Informed consent.
Which person may give consent when presenting a treatment plan for an incompetent adult?
Dental clinician.
Patient's caregiver.
Patient's sibling.
Legal guardian.
For elective dental procedures, in which trimester should a pregnant patient be treated?
Second.
First.
Third.
Any.
When developing oral hygiene instruction for an elderly patient, at what age should the educational material be directed?
Biological.
Functional.
Calendar.
Chronologic.
During a case presentation, which patient visual impairment requires the clinician to be positioned to the patient's side?
Glaucoma.
Retinitis pigmentosa.
Cataracts.
Macular degeneration.
Which best describes the principal cause of periodontitis?
Genetic neutrophil deficiency.
Accumulation of subgingival calculus.
Host response to bacterial plaque biofilm.
Apical migration of marginal gingiva.
Which bony structure is initially destroyed by periodontitis?
Cortical plate of interdental septum.
Cribriform plate lining alveoli.
Bone marrow of alveolar bone.
Cancellous bone of alveolar process.
The initial examination of a 45-year-old female reveals localized advanced periodontitis. Which is the initial treatment?
Periodontal surgery.
Nonsurgical periodontal therapy
Localized chemotherapy.
Systemic antibiotics.
Which periodontal disease does NOT benefit from systemic antibiotic treatment?
Generalized unresponsive recurrent.
Necrotizing ulcerative.
Localized advanced chronic.
Generalized aggressive.
Which sequence of debridement is recommended for moderate periodontitis (Case type III)?
Quadrant scaling and root planing in four treatment appointments.
Half-mouth debridement in two treatment appointments.
Sextant scaling and root planing in six treatment appointments.
Full-mouth debridement in one treatment appointment.
At which interval of maintenance treatment, in months, does the long-term success of nonsurgical periodontal therapy rely?
12
9
6
3
An assessment of the patient's dentition reveals the presence of a large amalgam overhang. Radiographic evidence confirms that nearly two-thirds of the interproximal embrasure space is obstructed by amalgam. Which procedure is indicated?
Amalgam polishing.
Ultrasonic instrumentation.
Margination.
Replacement of restoration.
Which is true regarding sutures?
Black silk sutures absorb through enzymatic proteolysis.
Nonabsorbable sutures are professionally removed within 5 to 7 days of placement.
Sutures are always knotted on buccal surfaces.
No suture material (e.g. Suture 'tail') should be left behind suture knot.
Periodontal dressings are used to stop gingival bleeding after periodontal surgery. Surgical wounds heal more quickly when protected by a periodontal dressing.
Both statements are false.
The first statement is false and the second is true.
The first statement is true and the second is false.
Both statements are true.
Which are side effects of locally administered antibiotics?
Nonexistent.
Terminal.
Numerous.
Common.
Which periodontal probing depth is recorded when the 3 mm mark is just barely covered?
2.5
3.5
3
4
The patient's periodontal evaluation reveals a localized 6 mm probe reading accompanied by 3 mm of recession and 1 mm of mesiolingual mobility. Which figure, in millimeters, represents the clinical attachment loss?
3
9
6
10
From which approach is the mesial furcation of tooth #3 examined?
Mesial.
Buccal.
Distal.
Palatal.
Which assesses fremitus?
Handles of two single-sided instruments.
Clinician's index finger.
Occlusal indicator paper (Mylar strip).
Vertical bite-wing radiographs.
Each oral finding is within normal limits EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
Ranula
Palatal torus.
Leukoedema.
Fordyce granules.
In which position is the hard and soft palate most visible?
Upright seated position; head in neutral position and mouth closed in a smile.
Supine position; head tilted back and mouth wide open.
Semisupine position; head in neutral position and mouth slightly open.
Supine position; head tilted slightly forward, and mouth open with tongue extended.
Which is the most common site for intraoral cancer?
Floor of mouth.
Buccal mucosa.
Lateral border of tongue
Soft palate.
Which extraoral projection is used to evaluate skeletal relationships prior to orthodontic treatment?
Posteroanterior.
Waters.
Lateral jaw.
Lateral cephalometric.
Which classification does the American Society of Anesthesiologists (ASA) assign a patient with controlled angina pectoris?
II
III
I
IV
The vast majority of disabled individuals earn a middle-class income. The cost of dental treatment is manageable for most patients with disabilities.
Both statements are false.
The first statement is false and the second is true.
Both statements are true
The first statement is true and the second is false.
Each of the following are signs of moderate apprehension EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
Stiff posture.
Dizziness.
Cold, sweaty palms.
Quick answers.
Which defines right and wrong conduct?
Actions.
Beliefs.
Values.
Ethics
Which ethical competency is conflicted when individual autonomy is challenged?
Truthfulness.
Security.
Social trust.
Core values.
Which is NOT a part of a patient's informed refusal of treatment?
Dismissal from practice.
Documentation in patient record.
Patient signature
General and oral health risks.
Each of the following is a component of informed consent EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
Treatment plan.
Alternative treatments.
Potential complications.
Financial arrangements.
A plaintiff cannot use the testimony of a specialist to establish the standard of care for a general dentist because the courts require all dentists to properly diagnose disease.
The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.
Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.
The statement is correct, but the reason is not.
Both the statement and the reason are correct but not related.
Under the legal theory of respondeat superior, which party is liable for damages to a patient resulting from breach of confidence?
Dental hygienist.
Dentist.
Front-office personnel.
Patient.
Which is NOT cause for patient dismissal from a dental practice?
Failed appointments.
Noncompliance with instruction
Lack of proof of alien work permit.
Refusal to honor financial commitments.
Each of the following should be included in a dismissal letter EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION
Financial details and method of payment
Availability of records and record forwarding
Documentation of patient noncompliance in bargain.
Facts that include diagnosis and treatment agreement
Each of the following is a concept dental professionals should embrace EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
Familiarity with regulatory provisions of practice.
Understanding of professional responsibilities.
Understanding of professional responsibilities.
Compliance with self-referral.
The dental hygienist speaks privately with the dentist regarding over-prescribing radiographs for a patient. Which ethical responsibility does this acknowledge?
Fairness.
Equity.
Freedom of speech.
Autonomy.
Which communication technique is most beneficial when addressing an ethical concern with the dentist?
Provide sound scientific evidence.
Refuse to honor a questionable directive.
Mention state board of dental examiners.
Use comparative risk analysis
The dental hygienist attempts to view the dentist's directive to expose radiographs every six months. Which is evident?
Sympathy.
Acceptance
Responsiveness.
Empathy.
Dental professionals who volunteer their time and services for nonprofit are exempt from liability. Dental professionals who treat family members at no charge are giving a gift that is not subject to malpractice action or damage award.
Both statements are false.
Both statements are true.
The first statement is false and the second is true.
The first statement is true and the second is false.
How long should a minor's records be kept?
Until state board dismisses complaint.
Three years from date of claim
Until a child reaches age of majority.
Seven years in accordance with income tax purposes.
Which is the best reason to maintain a separate incident file for documenting irrational or belligerent patient behavior?
Insurance purposes.
Dentist-client-attorney privilege.
Patient pays nominal fee for copy.
Dental records are owned by patient.
The dentist cannot be held liable for acts by employees because the patient must prove the dentist knew the employee was incompetent.
Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.
Both the statement and the reason are correct but not related.
The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.
Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.
Which is NOT a purpose for accurate chart documentation?
Genetic mapping.
Forensic identification.
Communication.
Assessment.
Two-tone disclosing solution is used to assess the patient's overall home-care routine. Violet-blue pigment stains the lingual surfaces of the mandibular premolars, which are tilted lingually towards prominent mandibular tori. All other tooth surfaces are clean and unstained. Which brushing modification will likely produce an improvement?
Encourage patient to brush with more pressure for an increased length of time.
Augment current routine with a child-size toothbrush and area-specific instruction.
Replace current toothbrush with a counter-rotational powered toothbrush.
Modify a manual toothbrush handle to provide patient with a better handle grip.
Which instruction is NOT recommended for maintenance of a partial denture with clasps?
Soak partial denture overnight in a dilute sodium hypochlorite solution.
Remove and rinse appliance after every meal.
Remove prostheses overnight to allow oral tissues to rest.
Scrub prostheses daily over a sink filled with water.
Which toothbrushing method is most effective for cleaning around fixed orthodontic appliances?
Charter.
Stillman.
Fones.
Bass.
A patient in her second trimester of pregnancy experiences severe morning sickness. Which should the patient do immediately after vomiting?
Brush teeth with fluoridated toothpaste.
Clean tongue with a plastic tongue scraper.
Chew sugar-free gum with xylitol.
Rinse mouth thoroughly with a solution of baking soda and water.
A thorough review of the health history and nutritional analysis indicates the patient is at an elevated risk for developing osteoporosis. Which vitamin deficiency is associated with a loss of mineralized bone tissue?
K
B
D
A
Which oral finding is indicative of habitual thumbsucking?
Large patches of hyperkeratinized buccal mucosa.
Sheered or flaked enamel.
Overdeveloped masseter muscles.
Extreme overjet of maxillary incisors.
Which restorative material provides the greatest compressive strength?
Composite resin.
Acrylic resin.
Amalgam.
Porcelain.
Which polishing method is least damaging to enamel?
Air-powder using sodium bicarbonate and water.
Air-powder using sodium bicarbonate and water.
Bristle brush using pumice and wate
Rubber-cup using medium grit prophy paste, followed by fine grit prophy paste.
Which technique produces the most accurate alginate impression?
Allow impression to dry completely before pouring it up with gypsum.
Rock tray gently to release it from patient's mouth once material is set.
Reduce amount of water slightly to speed gelation.
Mix alginate powder with cool water.
Impressions for athletic mouthguards are acquired with removable appliances in place. Athletes should be advised to remove these appliances when participating in sports.
The first statement is true and the second is false.
Both statements are true.
The first statement is false and the second is true
Both statements are false.
Which patient is the best candidate for aesthetic bleaching?
17-year-old female with enamel pitting and white spots related to fluorosis.
32-year-old male with trauma-related discoloration in non-vital teeth.
64-year-old male with amalgam stains from faulty interproximal restorations.
64-year-old male with amalgam stains from faulty interproximal restorations.
During sealant placement, which angle, in degrees, provides the greatest retention?
45
135
90
180
Which sequence of steps correctly prepares a tooth for sealant placement? A Rinse, clean, dry, etch and rinse.
Rinse, clean, dry, etch and rinse.
Dry, etch, clean, rinse and dry.
Clean, dry, etch, rinse and dry.
Etch, rinse, dry, clean, and rinse.
The thin layer of uncured resin which forms on the surface of a newly-cured sealant should be removed with gauze or a cotton roll because this oxygen-inhibited layer is harmful to the patient.
The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT
NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct.
Both the statement and reason are correct and related.
The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct.
Each of the following can be recommended a fluoride rinse EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
4-year-old female with visible heavy plaque and clinical evidence of incipient caries.
8-year-old male with high caries experience and a pattern of frequent snacking
16-year-old male with a history of restored teeth and infrequent preventive care.
12-year-old female with orthodontic appliances and newly erupted molars.
Which instruction supports proper mouth protector (athletic mouthguard) home care?
Store in a Ziploc plastic bag.
Rinse under hot tap water before and after each use.
Soak in alcohol overnight to remove stains.
Clean with a toothbrush and liquid soap.
The operator is cautioned to close his or her eyes when curing materials because direct exposure to the intense blue light may damage the retina.
Both the statement and reason are correct and related.
The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT.
NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct.
The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct.
Chlorhexidine gluconate (CHG) is a widely used chemotherapeutic rinse proven effective in reducing plaque and gingivitis. Chlorhexidine gluconate is effective against gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria.
The first statement is true and the second is false.
Both statements are false.
Both statements are true.
The first statement is false and the second is true.
Which is NOT a local functional factor that contributes to the retention of dental biofilm?
Tooth anatomy.
Malocclusion.
Mouth breathing.
Parafunctional habits.
Locally administered antimicrobials placed in a periodontally diseased pocket have proven to produce a positive change in the health of the periodontium. Locally administered antimicrobials are designed to be applied in periodontal pockets 5 mm or greater.
The first statement is true and the second is false.
Both statements are true.
Both statements are false.
The first statement is false and the second is true.
According to the Classification System of the American Academy ofPeriodontology, which classification of periodontal disease is generalized aggressive periodontitis?
V
II
IV
III
Interdental vertical bony defects are typically visible on radiographs. The occurrence of interdental vertical bony defects decreases with age.
The first statement is true and the second is false.
The first statement is false and the second is true.
Both statements are true.
Both statements are false.
Visibility of the tooth root may be an esthetic concern for a patient following periodontal surgery. Exposed root surfaces in the oral cavity may lead to dentinal hypersensitivity and an increased risk for developing root caries.
The first statement is true and the second is false.
Both statements are true
The first statement is false and the second is true.
Both statements are false
In relation to disease transmission, which describes an improperly stored toothbrush?
Host.
Vector.
Pathogen.
Fomite.
Which statement indicates the dental hygienist is making a dental diagnosis?
"Do not wear your mouthguard over your retainer."
"An over-the-counter mouthguard would help relieve your TMJ discomfort."
"Wear a mouthguard while playing football to protect your teeth."
"Replace your mouthguard if it becomes worn."
Which correctly defines the concept of ionization?
An x-ray photon collides with an electron.
An electron is removed from the orbital shell of an atom.
A molecule is maintained in orbit by binding energy.
An electron passes near the nucleus of an atom.
At which locality are x-ray photons created inside the dental x-ray tube?
Anode.
Cathode.
Collimator.
Position indicating device (PID).
Increasing the exposure time on the x-ray control panel will have the same affect on the resultant image as increasing which other radiation control?
Distance.
Amount of filtration.
Kilovoltage peak.
Milliamperage
Which part of the dental tubehead is responsible for removing the longer wavelength x-rays from the beam?
Seal
Lead collimator.
Position Indicating Device (PID)
Aluminum filter.
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