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Pediatric Radiology Quiz

Test your knowledge on pediatric radiology with our comprehensive quiz! Covering a range of topics from respiratory distress in newborns to tumors in children, this quiz is designed for medical students, professionals, and anyone interested in pediatric imaging.

Key Features:

  • 150 multiple-choice questions
  • Focus on clinical scenarios and diagnostic radiology
  • Designed for both learning and assessment
150 Questions38 MinutesCreated by AnalyzingKid24
91) A newborn delivered by cesarean section shows signs of respiratory distress soon after birth. A chest radiograph is performed. Which one of the following features favors the diagnosis of transient tachypnea of the newborn (TTN)?
A ground glass opacities throughout both lungs
Hyper inflated lung
Loss of lung volume
The presence of a pleural effusion
Hypo-inflated lung
92) A 4-week-old male neonate presents with milky vomiting and a hypochloraemic alkalosis. Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis is suspected and ultrasound is performed. Which one of the following ultrasound findings would confirm the diagnosis?
A pylorus that does not open
Pyloric canal length of greater than 11mm
Pyloric muscle wall thickness of 1mm
Transverse pyloric diameter of greater than 11mm
Transverse pyloric diameter of lower than 5mm
93) A 4-year-old child presents with upper back pain. Hepatomegaly and blood tests show iron deficiency anemia. Chest radiograph demonstrates an abnormal mediastinal contour, and CT confirms an 8-cm posterior mediastinal mass which contains calcifications. The lungs are clear. Which one of the followings is most likely the diagnosis?
Extramedullary hematopoiesis
Lymphoma
Neuroblastoma
Teratoma
Neproblastoma
94) A 6-month-old child with palpable abdominal mass. Ultrasound is revealing a mixed echogenic mass in the left kidney. CT demonstrates a large mass within the left kidney which has a moderate enhancing component. Which one of the following would be the most likely diagnosis?
Angiomyolipoma
Lymphoma
Neuroblastoma
Wilm’s tumor
Angioma
95) A 3-month-old infant with failure to thrive and tachypnea. No evidence of central or peripheral cyanosis. A chest radiograph shows enlarged central and peripheral pulmonary vessels throughout both lungs. Which one of the following is a potential diagnosis?
Pulmonary stenosis
Tetralogy of Fallot
Tricuspid atresia
Ventricular septal defect (VSD)
Patent ductus
96) Interstitial lung disease is suspected in a 3-year-old child who has a long history of breathlessness on exertion. A chest radiograph reveals interstitial change at the lung base. The clinical symptoms are more severe that the radiographic changes appear to suggest and a diagnosis is yet to be established. Which one of the following would be the next appropriate investigation?
Bronchoscopy
Contrast-enhanced CT of the chest
HRCT (high resolution CT)
MRI
X-ray
97) A 2-week-old baby presents with poor feeding and bilious vomiting. Malrotation is suspected and an upper GI contrast study (TOGD) is requested. What specific radiological finding would confirm the diagnosis?
Corkscrewing’ appearance of the duodenum and jejunum
On the supine radiograph the D-J flexure lies to the left of the midline
On lateral view the D-J flexure is posterior
On the supine radiograph the D-J flexure lies above the duodenal bulb
Corkscrewing’ appearance of the duodenum and colon
98) A 5-year-old child presented 1 week ago with bacterial meningitis and is now persistently pyrexial with new onset seizures. A CT head with contrast injection shows frontal leptomeningeal enhancement, with hypodense material within the subdural space, but hyperdense to CSF. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Cerebral abscess
Cerebritis
Subdural empyema
Ventriculitis
Tumor
99) A 3-month-old infant with Tetralogy of Fallot is waiting surgery. A pre-operative chest radiograph is performed when the child has no current illness. Which one of the following features are you most likely to see?
Boot-shape heart
Enlarged hila
Pulmonary plethora
Splaying of hila
Normal heart
100) A 2 week-old septic neonate shows worsening renal function and proteinuria. Seven days after his initial illness, an ultrasound is performed which reveals a unilateral enlarged kidney, with loss of corticomedullary differentiation and reversal of end-diastolic arterial flow. Associated adrenal hemorrhage is noted. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Acute glomerulonephritis
Acute tubular necrosis
Renal vein thrombosis
Renal artery stenosis
Renal vein stenosis
101) A 12-year-old child with CF (cystic fibrosis) had been followed up with annual chest radiographs. Which of the following features is a late radiographic change associated with the disease?
Cavitation
Diffuse interstitial patters
Hilar enlargement
Consolidation
Consolidation and cavitation
102) A neonate with a history of worsening cyanosis and respiratory distress has a series of chest radiographs taken. The initial chest radiograph reveals a solid left upper lobe mass and over the course of 3 weeks, this becomes aerated. The progressive mediastinal shift is seen as the mass enlarges. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Congenital lobar emphysema
Congenital cystic adenomatoid malformation (CCAM)
Bronchopulmonary sequestration
Congenital diaphragmatic hernia
Traumatic diaphragmatic hernia
103) A 3-year-old boy presents with a short history of shortness of breath. Clinical examination is unremarkable, but on the chest radiograph there are multiple pulmonary nodules suggestive of metastases. Which one of the following tumors would be the most likely source of pulmonary metastasis?
Neuroblastoma
Meduloblastoma
Nephroblastoma (Wilm’s tumor)
Lymphoma
Benign tumor
104) A 4-year-old child presents with shortness of breath and fever. The chest radiograph shows a round opacity within the right lower lobe. No previous chest radiographs are available for comparison. Which one of the following statements is true when trying to distinguish pneumonia from a tumor in a child?
Sharp margins are associated with pneumonia
The absence of an air bronchogram makes tumor lore likely
Ill-defined margins make pneumonia more likely
An MRI would be the next investigation of choice
A CT would be the next investigation of choice
105) A newborn baby is hypoxic immediately following delivery. There is evidence of meconium-stained amniotic fluid. Which one of the following statements is true regarding meconium aspiration syndrome?
The chest radiograph typically shows patchy consolidation with areas of hyperinflation
The chest radiograph typically shows a fine ground glass appearance
Pneumothorax and pneumomedianum are uncommon complications
Radiological resolution is usually seen within 48-72hours
Normal chest x-ray
106) A 5-year-old boy is involved in traffic accident and is complaining of neck pain. Which of the following statements is true regarding the cervical spine radiograph?
Subluxation of up to 7mm of C2 anteriorly on C3 is normal
Subluxation of up to 3mm of C2 posteriorly 0n C3 is normal
The soft tissues anterior to C2 must be no wider than 1/4 of the width of the C2 vertebral body
The distance between the anterior arch of C1 and the dens can be up to 5mm
The soft tissues anterior to C2 must be no wider than 1/2 of the width of the C2 vertebral body
107) A neonate presents at 24 hours old with vomiting, abdominal distension and failure to pass meconium. A series of investigations are performed. Which of the following would be in keeping with a diagnosis of meconium ileus?
A contrast enema showing pellets of meconium within the terminal ileum
A contrast study showing narrow loops of proximal ileum
A contrast enema showing a dilated terminal ileum
A plain abdominal radiograph (ASP) showing a soap bubble appearance within the left iliac fossa
A contrast study showing dilated loop of proximal ileum
108) Following a recent viral illness, a 5-year-old girl presents with a fluctuating conscious level, seizures and left leg weakness. She is apyrexial and does not have a rash. An MRI is performed. This shows bilateral areas of increased T2 signal in the subcortical white matter and cerebellum and deep grey matter. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Atter. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis? Bacterial meningitis
Viral encephalitis
Multiple sclerosis
Acute disseminated encephalomyelitis (ADEM)
Fungus meningitis
109) A 3-day-old neonate demonstrates signs of respiratory distress. A chest radiograph demonstrates a right pleural effusion. Which one of the following is the commonest cause?
Hydrops fetalis
Meconium aspiration syndrome
Pulmonary hemorrhage
Chylothorax
Pulmonary embolism
110) An 8-month-old child who was previously well presents with vomiting and altered conscious level. A CT head reveals significant hydrocephalus with a hyperdense mass. An MRI is arranged and reveals a lobulated mass adjacent to the trigone of lateral ventricles. The lesion yields low signal on both T1w and T2w sequences with avid enhancement postcontrast. Which one of the following is likely the most likely diagnosis?
Craniopharyngioma
Meningioma
Ependymoma
Choroid plexus tumor
Hydrocephalus
111) A 6-year-old boy presents with a right-side limp of a few week’s duration. He is apyrexial. Which one of the following is the earliest radiographic sign that would support a diagnosis of Perthes’disease of the hip?
Fragmentation of the femoral head
Hip effusion
A subchondral lucency
Sclerosis of the femoral head
Necrosis of the femoral head
112) A 5-year-old child presents with vomiting, lethargy and a persistent headache. A CT head is performed and shows a hyperdense midline posterior fossa mass, abuting the fourth ventricle with associated hydrocephalus. There is significant peritumoral oedema but no calcification, and avid homogenous enhancement is seen postcontrast. Which one of the following posterior fossa tumors is the most likely diagnosis?
Meduloblastoma
Ependymoma
Pilicystic astrocytoma
Cerebellar heamangioma
Hydrocephalus
113) A 3-year-old girl presents with a purpuric rash, abdominal pain and blood-stained stools. Henoch- Schönlein purpura (HSP) is the clinical diagnosis. Which one of the following statements is true when investigating this girl?
An ultrasound is of little diagnostic use
If an intussusception is seen it is likely to be difficult to reduce
An ultrasound finding of hypoechoic, thickened bowel wall would be supportive the clinical diagnosis
Involvement of the GI tract is seen in 10% of patients with HSP
An ultrasound finding of hyperechoic, thickened colon wall would be supportive the clinical diagnosis
114) An 11-year-old boy presents with right hip pain. He is apyrexial and the clinicians are concerned that he has a slipped femoral epiphysis (epiphysiolyse aseptique). Which one of the following would be appropriate first-line imaging?
AP and frogleg lateral radiographs of the pelvis
PA and frogleg lateral radiographs of the pelvis
Ultrasound of the hip
CT with 3D reconstruction of the affected hip joint
MRI with 3D reconstruction of the affected hip joint
115) A 10-year-old child presented 5 weeks ago with prolonged fever and headache with new onset seizures. A CT head pre-and post-contrast injection shows frontal isodense mass with peripheral enhancement centered by a calcification. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Cerebral abscess
Neurocysticercosis
Brain Tuberculoma
Brain tumor
Hydrocephalus
116) A 7-year-old girl presents with a fluctuating conscious level, seizures and contractures. Lumbar tab is consistent with viral encephalitis. An MRI is performed. This shows bilateral areas of increased T2 signal in the thalami. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
JEV encephalitis
HSV encephalitis
Bacterial encephalitis
HIV encephalitis
Viral encephalitis
117) A 6-year-old boy is involved in traffic accident and is complaining of headache and subsequently developed altered conscious level. Which one of the following investigations is appropriate in this condition?
CT head with contrast injection
CT head without contrast injection
MRI head
AP and Lateral view radiographs of the head
CT head with and without contrast injection
118) La radiographie du thorax de face chez une primo-infection tuberculeuse montre un foyer de condensation pulmonaire au lobe moyen droit, quelle lésion associée la plus fréquente?
Cavitation
Pleurésie
Adénopathie hilaire
Pneumothorax
Lignes septales
119) A 70-year-old man recently underwent a laparoscopic prostatectomy. He now presents to the Emergency Department complaining of shortness of breath, pleuritic chest pain and haemoptysis. D- dimer levels were measured and found to be significantly elevated. A CXR is performed as part of the initial set of investigations. Which one of the following is the most likely CXR finding?
A normal chest radiograph
Linear atelectasis
Localized peripheral oligaemia
Peripheral airspace opacification
Pleural effusion
120) A 27-year-old, previously fit and well man presents to his GP with a short history of pyrexia, cough and haemoptysis. He has never previously been admitted to hospital. Sputum culture has grown Streptococcus pneumoniae. What is most likely chest radiograph finding?
Bronchopneumonia
Cavitation
Empyema
Large pleural effusion
Lobar consolidation
121) A 7-year-old girl, who has recently migrated migrated to this country from India, presents with a productive cough, fever, night sweats and weight loss. A CXR demonstrates marked consolidation in the right upper lobe. Sputum cytology reveals the presence of acid-fast bacilli. What additional radiological finding is most likely to suggest a diagnostic of current primary tuberculosis as opposed to post-primary tuberculosis?
Cavitation
Mediastinal lymphadenopathy
Multifocal lesion
Ranke complex
Rasmussen aneurysm
122) A 30-year-old male engineer has recently returned from North America having inspected a number of construction sites. He develops flu-like symptoms and CXR reveals the presence of a solitary well- defined nodule. What additional finding would make a diagnosis of Histoplasmosis infection more likely, rather than Cryptococcus infection?
Air bronchograms
Cavitation
Central calcification
Lymphadenopathy
Pleural effusion
123) A 30-year-old man is HIV positive with a most recent CD4 count = 100 cells/μL. He presents to the infectious diseases team with a cough, dyspnea and general malaise. A CXR demonstrates bilateral, diffuse, medium-sized reticular opacities. An air-filled parenchymal cavity (pneumatocoele) is seen, but there is an absence of either mediastinal lymphadenopathy or a pleural effusion. What is the most likely underlying opportunistic infection?
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Cryptococcus neoformans
Cytomegalovirus
Mycobacterium avium complex
Pneumocystis carinii
124) A 50-year-old lifelong male smoker has presented to his GP with increasing shortness of breath. A CXR shows that the right atrial border is a little indistinct. On thee lateral view there is a triangular density with its apex directed towards the lung hilum. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Left lower lobe collapse
Left upper lobe collapse
Right middle lobe collapse
Right lower lobe collapse
Right upper lobe collapse
125) A confused 70-year-old man with a history of cough and some shortness of breath attends your Radiology Department for a CXR. It is noted that there are multiple discrete, spherical and well-defined pulmonary nodules with a peripheral distribution. Some calcification is noted within some of these nodules but cavitation is not evident. The accompanying nurse from the care home tells you that he has a “growth” somewhere but is not sure what this is. What is the most likely primary tumour?
Adenocarcinoma of the colon
Anaplastic thyroid carcinoma
Chondrosarcoma of the femur
Invasive ductal carcinoma of the of the breast
Squamous cell carcinoma of the oesophagus
126) A 25-year-old male pedestrian has been hit by a car and is currently being resuscitated in the Emergency Department. He complaint of paraesthesia involving his left shoulder. Which one of the following radiological features is the most likely related cause?
Dislocated left sternoclavicular joint
Fractured left 2nd rib
Fractured left humerus
Left tension pneumothorax
Right anterior shoulder dislocation
127) A 27-year-old man has been involved in a high-speed road traffic accident. There is significant diagonal bruising over the abdomen, due to the wearing of a seat belt. He is heamodynamically stable, but complains of severe abdominal pain and a CT of the chest and abdomen is performed. Which one of the following radiographic sings on a CXR would be most likely to suggest a right-side diaphragmatic injury?
A nasogastric tube coiled within the left hemithorax
A right pleural effusion
Elevated left hemidiaphragm
Hollow viscera seen within the chest
Mediastinal shift towards the left
128) A 30-year-old warehouse employee has been admitted to the Emergency Department, having been crushed between a reversing lorry and a wall. A supine CXR demonstrates a pneumomediastinum and a right-side pneumothorax that has not responded to the insertion of an appropriately sited chest drain. The right lung is seen to sag towards the floor of the right hemithorax. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Flail chest
Pneumopericardium
Ruptured oesophagus
Tracheobronchial rupture
Traumatic aortic rupture
129) A 41-year-old man has previously had a large anterior myocardial infarction. He now presents with increasing shortness of breath on exertion and it is suspected that he has a degree of pulmonary venous hypertension (PVH) due to left ventricular failure. Which one of the following is the most likely radiological finding?
A fine nodular parenchymal lung pattern if chronic PVH develops
Kerley A septal lines radiating from the hilum to the pleural surface
Kerley C septal lines seen at right angles to the pleural surface within the peripheral lower zones
Lower lobe pulmonary venous blood diversion
Relative thinning of bronchial wall thickness compared with normal subjects
130) A 56-year-old female smoker presents with increasing shortness of breath, fever and a productive cough. Her CXR demonstrates diffuse opacification at the right lung base and treatment is commenced for community-acquired pneumonia. Which additional radiological finding is most likely to suggest a diagnosis of Streptococcus pneumoniae rather than Staphylococcus aureus?
Air bronchograms
Cavitating nodules
Empyema
Pleural effusion
Scattered multifocal opacities
131) A 49-year-old man presents to his GP with increasing shortness of breath. A CXR demonstrates a “white out” of left hemithorax with displacement of mediastinum towards the left. What is the most likely explanation?
Diaphragmatic hernia
Extensive consolidation
Lung collapse
Mesothelioma
Pleural effusion
132) Whilst reporting plain radiographs from a respiratory outpatient clinic, you view a CXR that demonstrates bilateral hypertransradiant hemithoraces. The lung volumes are normal and, unfortunately, there is no clinical history accompanying the request card. Which diagnosis would best explain these finding?
Acute bronchiolitis
Asthma
COPD
Multiple pulmonary emboli
Tracheal stenosis
133) A CXR is performed on a 62-year-old man with a chronic cough. This demonstrates multiple tiny nodules throughout both lungs, measuring up to 2 mm in size. These micronodules appear to be of greater density than soft tissue. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Coal worker’s pneumoconiosis
Miliary histoplasmosis
Miliary tuberculosis
Sarcoidosis
Silicosis
134) You are asked by the Emergency Department clinicians to review a trauma series of plain radiographs of a young man involved in a road traffic accident. The clinicians suspect that the patient has multiple right-sided rib fractures. Which one of the following is the correct radiological consideration as you review these films?
A double fracture of a single rib leads to a “flail segment”.
Fractures of the 1st to 3rd ribs imply a minor trauma.
If fractures of the 10th to 12th ribs are present, further imaging is likely to be required.
Rib fractures are commonly seen in children.
The supine chest radiograph is a sensitive screening test for rib fractures.
135) A 27-year-old woman has severe asthma. She is admitted to ITU with a severe, life-threatening exacerbation requiring mechanical ventilation. Two days later, a supine CXR is performed. This demonstrates a lucent line around the left heart border and aortic arch with surgical emphysema at the root of the neck. The lungs are hyperinflated but appear clear. Which complication is likely to have occurred?
Alveolar rupture.
Diaphragmatic rupture.
Oesophageal perforation.
Pneumothorax.
Tracheobronchial rupture.
136) A 43-year-old man is investigated for pain related to his left arm. Plain radiography demonstrates a well-defined, lytic lesion in the proximal humerus, with chondroid matrix mineralisation and a narrow zone of transition. There is deep endosteal cortical scalloping and the suggestion of bone expansion. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Chondroblastoma.
Chondroma.
Chondromyxofibroma.
Chondrosarcoma.
Osteochondroma.
137) A 32-year-old man attends hospital following a fall onto his flexed left arm. He is referred to the duty orthopaedic team with a “Monteggia injury”. What are the most likely radiological findings?
A fracture of the distal radius with an associated dislocation of the radial head.
A fracture of the distal radius with an associated disruption of the distal radioulnar joint.
A fracture of the distal ulna with an associated dislocation of the radial head.
A fracture of the proximal ulna with an associated dislocation of the radial head.
A fracture of the proximal radius with an associated disruption of the distal radioulnar joint.
138) A 27-year-old man is referred by his GP with progressively painful swelling of his left knee following a minor football injury some weeks ago. The radiograph shows a 5-cm ill-defined lytic lesion within the left distal femoral metaphysis, with a permeative pattern of bone loss and areas of cloud-like ossification. There is an extensive periosteal reaction, predominantly orientated perpendicular to the cortex. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Aneurysmal bone cyst.
Chondrosarcoma.
Ewing’s sarcoma.
Metastasis.
Osteosarcoma.
139) An 80-year-old woman is admitted to hospital following a fall. The patient had a right mastectomy and axillary dissection 5 years ago to treat an invasive ductal carcinoma. The pelvic radiograph reveals a left hip fracture. Which fracture site would be most suggestive of a pathological fracture?
Greater trochanter fracture
Intertrochanteric fracture of the left proximal femur.
Pertrochanteric fracture of the left proximal femur.
Subcapital fracture of the left neck of femur.
Subtrochanteric fracture of the left proximal femur.
140) A 19-year-old student returns to the UK following 4 months’ travelling around the world. Radiographs reveal multiple oval areas of calcification, up to 1 cm in long axis, aligned in the direction of muscle fibres. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Cysticercosis.
Dracunculus (guinea worm) infection.
Hydatid disease.
Loiasis.
Schistosomiasis.
141) A previously well 80-year-old woman sustains a subcapital fracture of the right neck of femur following a fall onto hard ground. The plain film reveals multiple lytic lesions within the pelvic bones and proximal femora, which are highly suspicious for bone metastases. What is the most likely occult primary lesion?
Carcinoma of the bladder.
Carcinoma of the breast
Carcinoma of the bronchus
Carcinoma of the colon
Carcinoma of the stomach
142) A 34-year-old man with chronic back pain is referred by his GP for thoracic and lumbar spine radiographs. The GP is concerned about the possibility of ankylosing spondylitis. Which radiological feature is atypical for ankylosing spondylitis, and might suggest an alternative diagnosis?
Ankylosis of the apophyseal joints
Anterior longitudinal ligament calcification
Osteophyte formation
Sclerosis of the anterior corners of the vertebrae
Vertebral body squaring
143) A 50-year-old woman complains of painful swelling of the joints of the hands and wrists. Radiographs show evidence of an erosive arthropathy. Which radiological feature would favour a diagnosis of rheumatoid rather than psoriatic arthritis?
Early reduction in bone mineralisation.
Erosions of the terminal tufts of the distal phalanges
Joint ankylosis
Pencil-in-cup deformities of the middle phalanges
Periosteal reaction
144) An 18-year-old man attends his general practitioner with a painful right knee. His radiograph shows a well-defined, lobular, lytic lesion within the proximal tibial epiphysis, extending into the metaphysis. There is a faintly sclerotic margin and no matrix calcification. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Chondroblastoma
Chondromyxoid fibroma
Enchondroma
Giant cell tumour
Osteoid osteoma
145) A young girl is brought to the Emergency Department with a painful right elbow following a fall. The radiograph reveals that the radial head is ossified. Which other structure should be visible?
Capitellum
Internal epicondyle
Olecranon
Lateral epicondyle
Trochlea
146) A radiograph of the left knee of a 35-year-old man reveals a 3-cm lytic lesion sited eccentrically in the proximal tibia. It has a well-defined non-sclerotic margin, and extends to the tibial articular surface. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Aneurysmal bone cyst.
Chondroblastoma
Giant cell tumour
Non-ossifying fibroma
Osteoid osteoma
147) A 35-year-old woman is referred to thee Radiology Department following the birth of her first child. The baby was delivered 8 days post-term and was a vaginal delivery following a prolonged labour and episiotomy. Two months later, the patient continues to experience faecal incontinence and an anal sphincter tear is suspected. Which investigation would be most useful to demonstrate anal sphincter damage?
Barium evacuation proctogram
CT colonography
CT with rectal contrast media
Endoanal ultrasound
MRI of the pelvis with a body coil.
148) A 37-year-old man presents to his GP with increasing right upper quadrant pain. On examination, he is afebrile with right upper quadrant tenderness and fullness. An abdominal ultrasound is performed and demonstrates a 5-cm diameter cystic lesion in the right lobe of liver. The mass contains multiple septations with a large cyst centrally and multiple small cystic spaces peripherally. Echogenic debris is seen within the cystic lesion and alters in position when the patient lies on his side. From the clinical an sonographic details, what is the most likely diagnosis?
Amoebic abscess
Hydatid cyst
Pyogenic liver abscess
Simple liver cyst
Solitary metastasis
149) A 33-year-old woman presents to her GP with a one year history of intermittent rectal bleeding. She experiences regular episodes of fresh blood per rectum with associated lower abdominal pain, lasting several days at a time. A flexible sigmoidoscopy is normal. A double contrast barium enema is performed and demonstrates an irregular appearance of the anterior wall of the sigmoid colon with mild extrinsic mass effect. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Carcinoma of the sigmoid colon
Endometriosis
Pelvic lipomatosis
Radiation enteritis
Solitary rectal ulcer syndrome
150) A 56-year-old woman presents with a 4-day history of right upper quadrant pain and vomiting. She describes a previous episode one year ago that resolved after a few day. On examination, she is very tender in the right upper quadrant with guarding on deep palpation during inspiration. Laboratory investigations reveal elevated white cell count and CRP but normal liver function tests and an abdominal ultrasound is performed. What are the most likely ultrasound findings?
Hypoechoic mass in the pancreatic head with common bile duct measuring 14 mm and pancreatic duct measuring 6 mm in diameter
Nodular liver surface, mixed reflectivity liver texture and ascites
Severe intrahepatic duct dilatation with no cause identified
Several large gallstones with gallbladder wall measuring 5 mm and a rim of pericholecystic fluid
Several small gallstones with gallbladder wall thickness of 2 mm
151) An 82-year-old woman is referred to the on-call surgical team as an emergency admission. The patient lives in a residential care home and has a 48-hour history of generalised abdominal pain and vomiting. On examination, she is dehydrated and tachycardic and an abdominal radiograph demonstrates multiple dilated small bowel loops measuring up to 4.8 cm in diameter. A linear gas-filled structure is present in the right upper quadrant with short branches extending from it. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Acute mesenteric ischaemia
Emphysematous cholecystitis
Gallstones ileus
Obstructed right inguinal hernia
Small bowel obstruction due to adhesions
152) A 72-year-old man is referred to hospital as an emergency admission by his GP. He has experienced vomiting and abdominal pain for 24 hours following a takeaway meal. There is a past medical history of ischaemic heart disease, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and hypertension. An abdominal radiograph is performed and demonstrates several gas-filled loops of small bowel centrally measuring up to 2.5 cm diameter. In the left side of the abdomen, multiple round foci of gas are projected over the wall of a loop of large bowel. No free gas or mucosal thickening is identified, what is the most likely explanation for the clinical and radiographic findings?
Gastroenteritis with incidental pneumatosis coli
Emphysematous pyelonephritis with a paralytic ileus
Ischaemic colitis causing intramural bowel gas
Perforated sigmoid diverticulitis with gas in the retroperitoneum
Small bowel obstruction due to a gallstone ileus
153) A 68-year-old woman presents with a 2month history of generalized abdominal bloating and two episodes of vaginal bleeding. On examination, the abdomen is distended with clinical evidence of ascites. Tumour makers are performed; CA 15-3 is normal, CA 125 and CEA are slightly elevated and CA 19-9 is markedly elevated. An abdominopelvic ultrasound demonstrates a moderate volume of ascites, multiple liver metastases and bilateral mixed solid/cystic adnexal masses. What is the most likely underlying primary tumour?
Breast cancer
Gastric adenocarcinoma
Melanoma
Ovarian cancer
Primary peritoneal carcinoma
154) A 27-year-old man is referred to the hepatology outpatient clinic with a 3-week history of malaise, lethargy and mild upper abdominal pain. Liver function tests performed by his GP are significantly abnormal. The results of hepatitis serology performed in the clinic are consistent with an acute hepatitis B infection. An abdominal ultrasound is performed. What is the most likely finding on ultrasound?
Decreased reflectivity of the liver parenchyma
Increased reflectivity of the liver parenchyma
Nodular liver surface
Normal ultrasound appearances
Retrograde portal venous flow
155) A 32-year-old man presents to his GP with increasing pain on swallowing solids and liquids. He has lost 15 kg in weight over the preceding 2 months. After a full history and examination, he is found to be HIV positive with a very low CD4 count. The GP refers him for a barium swallow examination and this demonstrates a single ulcer in the mid-oesophagus. The ulcer has a smooth margin, measures 4 cm in length and is oval in shape. There is no stricture identified. Which diagnosis is most likely?
Candida oesophagitis
CMV oesophagitis
Intramural pseudodiverticulosis
Oesophageal lymphoma
Squamous cell carcinoma of the oesophagus
156) A 49-year-old woman has experienced increasing difficulty swallowing over the past 6 months, with associated retrosternal discomfort. A barium swallow is performed and demonstrates virtually no peristaltic activity within a dilated oesophagus. The gastro-oesophageal junction appears widened and there is marked reflux of barium when the patient lies supine. An upper GI endoscopy shows moderate reflux oesophagitis. Given these findings, what is the most likely underlying diagnosis?
Achalasia
Oesophageal web
Presbyoesophagus
Scleroderma
Squamous cell carcinoma of oesophagus
157) A 30-year-old man attends the Emergency Department with a 2-day history of abdominal pain and vomiting. On examination, he is afebrile with a firm mass palpable in the right lower quadrant of the abdomen. A supine abdominal radiograph is performed and demonstrates dilated loops of small bowel with a large soft tissue mass in the right lower quadrant. On ultrasound, the mass has a “pseudotumour” appearance. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Colonic carcinoma
Gallstone ileus
Intussusception
Psoas abscess
Strangulated femoral hernia
158) A 49-year-old man is involved in a road traffic accident and sustains serious head and chest injuries. He is ventilated on the intensive care unit and his injuries are managed conservatively. Ten days later, he develops a temperature of 39.5°c, becomes tachycardic and requires inotropic support to maintain his blood pressure. An abdominal ultrasound is performed and shows a cystic structure in the right upper quadrant measuring 12 x 8 cm in size. The mass has a 6-mm thick wall, contains a layer of echogenic material and is surrounded by a rim of fluid. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Acalculous cholecystitis
Acute cholangitis
Gallbladder haematoma
Traumatic hepatic artery pseudoaneurysm
Xanthogranulomatous cholecystitis
159) A 40-year-old male diabetic patient has an intravenous urogram (IVU) for left-sided renal colic. On the IVU, the left kidney shows papillary and calyceal abnormalities that give an “egg in a cup” appearance at some calyces and “tracks and horns” at other calyces. The affected left kidney has preserved renal cortical thickness despite the calyceal/papillary abnormalities. The contralateral kidney appears normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Appears normal. What is the most likely diagnosis? Acute pyelonephritis
Amyloidosis
Reflux nephropathy
Renal papillary necrosis
Xanthogranulomatous pyelonephritis
160) A 40-year-old female diabetic patient has right loin pain, vomiting and a fever. An ultrasound examination is requested to exclude urinary obstruction. This demonstrates no evidence of upper tract dilatation, but features of acute pyelonephritis are present. What are the most likely sonographic findings within the right kidney?
Focal areas of reduced reflectivity in the renal parenchyma
Focal atrophy of segments of the right kidney
Increased echogenicity of the renal calyces
Enlarged right kidney and diffusely hyperechoic parenchyma
Shrunken right kidney and diffusely hyperechoic parenchyma
161) A 55-year-old HIV-positive man presents with macroscopic haematuria and right-sided renal colic. An IVU does not demonstrate any renal tract calcification, but there is a dense right nephrogram with no excretion of contrast on a delayed film. The urologist performs a retrograde ureteroscopy and retrieves a 9-mm right ureteric calculus. What is the likely composition of the calculus?
Calcium oxalate
Cysteine
Indinavir phosphate
Struvite
Uric acid
162) A 29-year-old man has an IVU performed following an episode of haematuria. This demonstrates complete right-sided ureteric duplication. Which one of the following statements is true?
If present, an ectopic ureterocoele is usually related to the lower moiety ureter
The lower moiety ureter usually obstructs at the vesicoureteric junction
The upper moiety calyces are prone to vesicoureteric reflux
The upper moiety ureter is prone to ureteric obstruction
The upper moiety ureter usually inserts into the bladder superior to the lower moiety ureter.
163) A 27-year-old man with membranous glomerulonephritis presents with a 1-day history of right- sided flank pain and haematuria. An abdominal radiograph did not reveal any renal calcification but his renal function has significantly deteriorated over the past 24 hours. On ultrasound there is a large, oedematous right kidney with loss of the corticomedullary differentiation. On a subsequent IVU, there is a faint nephrogram with absent pelvicalyceal filling after 15 minutes. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Acute hydronephrosis
Acute pyelonephritis
Acute renal infarction
Acute renal vein thrombosis
Chronic pyelonephritis
164) A 24-year-old motorcyclist involved in a traffic accident presents to the Emergency Department with a broken leg and bruising over his left flank. He is found to have microscopic haematuria and fractures of the left 8th and 9th ribs. The patient is haemodynamically stable and clinicians suspect a left renal injury. Which one of the following imaging investigations is the most appropriate?
Abdominal ultrasound
Contrast-enhanced CT abdomen and pelvis
Emergency catheter renal angiography
Gadolinium-enhanced renal MRI
IVU
165) A 68-year-old man is involved in a traffic accident and sustains a pelvic fracture, head and limb injuries. Attempted urethral catheterisation in the Emergency Department is unsuccessful and a cystourethrogram is requested to exclude urethral injuries. Regarding urethral injuries, which one of the following statements is correct?
Anterior urethral injury is more commonly due to iatrogenic or penetrating trauma than to blunt trauma.
Cystography should precede a retrograde urethrogram in a patient with suspected urethral injury
In men, on digital rectal examination the prostate is lower than normal in patients with urethral trauma
Urethral injuries occur in 50% of major pelvic fractures.
Urethral injury due to blunt trauma more commonly affects the penile urethra
166) A 42-year-old man is referred for investigation of painless microscopic haematuria. An IVU is performed and demonstrates bilateral small areas of calcification within the kidneys on the control image. On the 5-min postcontrast IVU film, the calcification appears to lie within the collecting system. On ultrasound, there are numerous small hyperechoic rounded areas within the medullary pyramids, many of which cast an acoustic shadow. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Adult polycystic kidney disease
Hyperparathyroidism
Medullary sponge kidney
Primary hyperoxaluria
Sacoidosis
167) A 32-year-old man involved in a high-speed traffic accident is found to have blood at the urethral meatus and a high riding prostate during the secondary clinical survey. The examining doctor suspects a urethral injury. Which part of the urethra is most likely to be involved?
Bulbar urethra
Membranous urethra
Penile urethra
Penoscrotal urethra
Prostatic urethra
168) You are the radiologist reviewing the mammograms of a 56-year-old woman. When compared with her previous mammograms, areas of calcification previously seen within the left upper outer quadrant have now disappeared. Which of the following is not a possible explanation?
Breast surgery
Chemotherapy
Postmenopausal changes
Radiotherapy
Spontaneous resolution
169) A transvaginal ultrasound is performed on a 36-year-old woman with dysfunctional uterine bleeding. This demonstrates an enlarged globular uterus with a heterogeneous appearance of the myometrium. The myometrium contains diffuse echogenic nodules, subendometrial echogenic linear striations and 2- to 6-mm subendometrial cysts. Color Doppler demonstrates a speckled pattern of increased vascularity within the heterogeneous area of myometrium. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Adenomyosis
Endometrial polyposis
Gestational trophoblastic disease (GTD)
Stage 1A endometrial cancer
Stage 1A endometrial cancer Uterine fibroid
170) A 52-year-old postmenopausal woman presents for her first screening mammogram. Within the right upper outer quadrant, there is a 2-cm well-defined, oval mass that has dense “popcorn” calcification within it and is surrounded by a thin radiolucent rim. On ultrasound, the mass is well defined and hyperechoic with areas of acoustic shadowing due to contained calcification. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Fat necrosis
Fibroadenoma
Hamartoma
Oil cyst
Papilloma
171) A 56-year-old woman is found to have a screen-detected breast cancer on her second screening mammogram. Two breast radiologists both agree that there is no evidence of malignancy on the previous mammograms, even in retrospect. Which one of the following statement best describes this interval cancer?
An interval cancer has a better prognosis, when compared with other screen-detected cancers.
This is known as a Type 1interval cancer.
This is known as a Type 2a interval cancer.
This is known as a Type 2b interval cancer.
This is known as a Type 3interval cancer.
172) A 42-year-old man with known Wegener’s granulomatosis develops haematuria. He has an abdominal ultrasound which reveals small, smooth kidneys with diffuse thinning of the renal parenchyma. The pelvicalyceal systems appear normal but there is an increased amount of renal sinus fat. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Bilateral vesicoureteric reflux.
Chronic glomerulonephritis
Medullary sponge kidney
Pyelonephritis.
Renal tuberculosis.
173) A 29-year-old man presents with a 4-hour history of sudden onset right loin pain, radiating to the right groin. The clinicians request an emergency IVU for suspected acute urinary obstruction. Which one of the following IVU features would be most consistent with acute urinary obstruction?
Absent right nephrogram and no evidence of contrast excretion on the right
An increasingly dense right nephrogram that remains present after 6 hours
An initially dense right nephrogram, which then resolves within 30 minutes
The right kidney being 10% longer than the left kidney
The right kidney being small with an irregular cortical surface.
174) A 35-year-old woman presents with a painless lump in the outer upper quadrant of her left breast. She is referred for an ultrasound examination of the left breast. Which of the following ultrasound findings would suggest a malignant rather than a benign breast mass?
A larger transverse than anterior-to-posterior diameter
Ill-defined echogenic halo around the lesion
Less than 1 cm in greatest diameter
Posterior acoustic enhancement
Uniform hyperechogenicity
175) An immunosuppressed 24-year-old man presents with left renal colic. He is referred for an IVU. The control film shows a gas containing, round lamellated mass within the urinary bladder. Postcontrast, there are multiple filling defects within the urinary bladder. What is the most likely cause of these appearances?
Appearances? Blood clot
Bladder calculi
Cystitis
Fungal ball
Schistosomiasis
176) A 53-year-old woman is invited to attend a mobile breast-screening unit for routine screening mammograms. Which one of the following statements is correct regarding the standard mammographic projections (the mediolateral oblique (MLO) and craniocaudal (CC) views)?
A well-positioned CC view usually contains all the breast tissue.
A well-positioned MLO view rarely shows the nipple in profile because of the oblique compression.
On a well-positioned MLO the nipple should be at the lower border of the pectoralis minor.
The MLO view is taken with the radiograph beam directed from superomedial to inferolateral.
The pectoralis major muscle is demonstrated at the posterior border of a CC view in approximately 70% of individuals.
177) A 24-year-old man presents to his GP with increased urinary frequency. Physical examination is normal and he is referred for ultrasound. Transabdominal ultrasound demonstrates a cystic structure posterior to the urinary bladder and a TRUS is performed for further evaluation. TRUS reveals a midline anechoic structure in the posterior portion of the prostate gland, superior to the verumontanum. It does not communicate with either the bladder or the seminal vesicles. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Bladder diverticulum
External iliac artery aneurysm
Mullerian duct cyst
Seminal vesicle cyst
Urethral cyst
178) A 22-year-old woman presents to her GP with irregular menstrual periods. She is overweight with a body mass index of 32 and has excess body hair. Her LH/FSH ratio is elevated and her GP refers her for a pelvic ultrasound. Which one of the following findings are most likely to be present on ultrasound?
Enlarged, oedematous ovaries with multiple packed follicles and pelvic-free fluid.
Enlarged ovaries with multiple peripheral cyst
Normal appearances of the ovaries
Ovarian mass with mixed cystic and solid components
Ovaries replaced by multiple large cyst
179) A 5-year-old boy who had a coarctation of his aorta repaired 12 months ago requires follow-up. Which of the following imaging modalities is the gold standard?
Conventional angiography
CT
Echocardiogram
MRI
Plain radiograph
180) A 6-year-old boy presents with a right-sided limp of a few weeks’ duration. He is apyrexial. Which one of the following is the earliest radiographic sign that would support a diagnosis of Perthers’ disease of the hip?
A subchondral lucency
Fragmentation of the femoral head
Hip effusion
Periarticular osteopenia
Sclerosis of the femoral head
181) A 2-year-old has an elbow radiograph performed following a fall. Which one of the following epiphyses should be visible?
Capitellum
Medial epicondyle
None
Olecranon
Radial head
182) On a 20-weeks antenatal ultrasound, unilateral fetal hydronephrosis is detected. Which one of the following findings would confirm the diagnosis of renal pelvic dilatation (RPD)?
During the second trimester, the AP renal pelvis measures more than 3 mm
During the third trimester, the AP renal pelvis measures greater than 5 mm
Megaureters are present.
The AP renal pelvis measures greater than 25% of the longitudinal length of the kidney
The AP renal pelvis measures greater than 50% of the longitudinal length of the kidney
183) A 2-week-old septic neonate shows worsening renal function and proteinuria. He is currently being monitored on the pediatric ITU. Seven days after his initial illness, an ultrasound is performed which reveals a unilateral enlarged kidney, with loss of corticomedullary differentiation and reversal of end diastolic arterial flow. Associated adrenal haemorrhage is noted. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Acute glomerulonephritis
Acute tubular necrosis
Renal artery stenosis
Renal vein thrombosis
Unilateral obstruction
184) A 2-year-old child presents to Emergency Department with a greenstick fracture of the ulna. On the radiograph, there is evidence of an old fracture to the same limb and the history given by the parents is inconsistent. Non-accidental injury (NAI) is clinically suspected and a skeletal survey is performed. Which of the following fractures have a high specificity for NAI?
Fractures of multiple ages
Fracture of the middle third of the clavicle.
Fracture of the lateral third of the clavicle.
Linear skull fracture
Spiral humeral fracture.
185) A 33-year-old HIV-positive woman presents with increasing headache and confusion. On examination she is pyrexial and has left leg and right facial weakness. A CT head demonstrates multiple lesions measuring between 2 and 4 cm, which are predominantly situated at the corticomedullary junction. These lesions have a thin enhancing rim as well as associated oedema and local mass effect. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Cryptococcosis
Histiocytosis
HIV encephalopathy
Multiple cerebral metastasis
Toxoplasmosis
186) A GP requests your advice regarding an 18-month-old girl whose mother has noticed that her left pupil appears white. The GP has performed ophthalmoscopy and is suspicious that there is a retinal mass. Which one of the following is the investigation of choice?
CT orbits
MRI orbits
Orbital radiographs
Repeat ophthalmoscopy by ophthalmologist
Ultrasound
187) A 19-year-old HIV-positive man is admitted with headache, confusion and disorientation. He is mildly pyrexial. A CT brain reveals multiple hypodensities, particularly in the brainstem and in the periventricular white matter. There is some ependymal enhancement postcontrast. What is the most likely cause for these findings?
CMV encephalitis
Cryptococcosis
HIV encephalitis
Toxoplasmosis
Tuberculosis
188) A 37-year-old woman is involved in a road traffic accident and sustains a severe head injury. Her CT head shows acute blood within the extradural, subdural and subarachnoid spaces. Which one of the following statements is true regarding extradural haematomas?
They are crescentic is shape
They are commonest in the temporoparietal region
They are rarely associated with a skull fracture
They are usually due to laceration of the middle cerebral artery
They commonly cross the cranial sutures
189) A 50-year-old man has a CT head after sustaining a head injury during a mechanical fall. The only positive finding is a large low attenuation lesion in the left middle cranial fossa, which is well defined, and of the same attenuation as cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). There is some thinning of the overlying temporal bone. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Arachnoid cyst
Cerebral infarct
Colloid cyst
Dermoid cyst
Epidermoid cyst
190) Un patient de 60 ans vient vous voie pour un nodule hépatique sur l’échographie qui évoque un foie d’aspect granuleuse. Quel est votre aptitude pour la démarche diagnostic devant une suspicion de CHC?
Scanner avec infection en 3 temps, Alpha-foetoprotéine, rechercher infection virale.
Alpha-foetoprotéine, bilan hépatique complet.
Ponction biopsie hépatique, bilan pour recherche la possibilité d’origine autre primitive.
Bilan de fonction hépatique et Alpha-feotoprotéine.
Rechercher infection virale, Alpha-foetoprotérine, bilan de fonction hépatique complet.
1) Chez un patient présentant une fibrillation auriculaire d'installation récente et anticoagulé de manière efficace par anti-vitamine K au long court, quelle situation constitue une contre-indication au choc électrique externe?
. Un traitement par Cordarone
. Un rétrécissement mitral
. Une hyperthyroïdie évolutive
. Une mauvaise tolérance hémodynamique
. Des antécédents d'infarctus du myocarde
2) Un patient d’une cinquantaines d’années est vu 1h00 après le début d’une douleur thoracique infarctoïde. A l’ECG, il existe un sus décalage de ST en inférieur. La tension est à 9/6, la fréquence cardiaque à 50/mn, les jugulaires sont turgescentes, il n’y a pas de crépitant à l’auscultation pulmonaire. Les médicaments suivants, sauf un, sont prescrits, selon la voie d’administration appropriée, pendant la phase pré hospitalière:
. Aspirine
. Héparine
. Atropine
. Morphine
. Trinitrine
3) Un homme de 60 ans, hypertendu traité de longue date, diabétique et dyslipidémique se présente au SAU suite à une violente douleur transfixiante rétrosternale à irradiation interscapulaire. A son arrivée, le patient souffre toujours et est agité. Vous constatez un cœur rapide à 100/minute, la pression artérielle est à 160/95 mais le reste de votre examen clinique est normal. Son ECG est subnormal, hormis un discret sous-décalage du segment ST en V4-V6. L'examen complémentaire que vous prescrivez en urgence est:
.une coronarographie
Un dosage des marqueurs biologiques de l'infarctus du myocarde
Un prélèvement pour mesure des gaz du sang
. Un scanner thoracique
Une échocardiographie trans-thoracique
4) Lors d'un IDM de topographie inférieure, on observe une chute de la pression artérielle à 80/50 mmHg, une bradycardie sinusale à 40/min, des sueurs et des nausées. L'auscultation pulmonaire est normale. Parmi les mesures thérapeutiques suivantes, laquelle retiendrez-vous en priorité?
. Injection d'Isuprel IV
Perfusion d'un soluté glucose 10%
Atropine 1 mg IV
Digoxine IV, 1 ampoule
. Mise en place d'une perfusion de TNT
5) Chez une femme enceinte de 8 mois, vous avez la certitude d'une thrombose veineuse fémorale sans embolie pulmonaire. Quelle thérapeutique préconisez-vous dans l'immédiat?
. Antivitamines K avec doses de charge
. Héparinothérapie
. Antiagrégants plaquettaires
. Traitement thrombolytique
. Interruption de la veine cave inférieure
6) Un patient de 60 ans, souffrant de silicose, a par ailleurs des épisodes de palpitations fréquents, prolongés et invalidants, par fibrillation auriculaire paroxystique. L’un des antiarythmiques ci-dessous est contre-indiqué. Lequel?
. VERAPAMIL (Isoptine®)
. DISOPYRAMIDE (RYTHMODAN®)
AMIODARONE (Cordarone®)
. HYDRO QUINIDINE « retard » (Sérécor®)
. FLECAINIDE (Flécaïne
7) Ms T, 20 year-old, is admitted to the emergency of a nationa hospital. She has DKA. The arguments below are the severity cryteria except one.
PH < 7
Bicarbonate < 10 mmol/l
K < 2.5 mmol/l or > 7 mmol/l
Conscience normal
Coma
8) Mr B. 65 ans, est adressé aux urgences par son médecin traitant. Il a aimablement joint une lettre: “Cher confère, merci de prendre en charge Mr B., qui présente une hypercalcémie à 3,05 mmol/L, chez qui je suspecte une hyperparathyroïdie primitive. Quelle atteinte met en jeux le prognostic vital?
Hépatite
Rénale
Cérébrale
Cardiaque
Respiratoire
9) Mr B. 65 ans, est adressé aux urgences par son médecin traitant. Il a aimablement joint une lettre: “Cher confère, merci de prendre en charge Mr B., qui présente une hypercalcémie à 3,05 mmol/L, chez qui je suspecte une hyperparathyroïdie primitive. Quel médicament peut donner d’hypercalcémie?
Antibiotiques
Anti-inflammatoires
Litium
Biphosphonates
Calcitonine
10) Mr B. 65 ans, est adressé aux urgences par son médecin traitant. Il a aimablement joint une lettre: “Cher confère, merci de prendre en charge Mr B., qui présente une hypercalcémie à 3,05 mmol/L, chez qui je suspecte une hyperparathyroïdie primitive. Quel est le traitement d’une hypercalcémie moderée?
Hydratation PO
Hydratation IV
Biphosphonate PO
Corticothérapie PO en cas de cause maligne
Diurèse forcée au Lasilix
11) A 50-year-old woman presents to accident and emergency complaining of excessive lethargy. In addition, she mentions that she has been constipated. On examination, there are clinical features of dehydration. Blood tests have revealed corrected calcium of 3.3 mol/L. Her chest x-ray shows bilateral streaky shadowing throughout both lung fields. She is given 3 L of saline in 24 hours after admission. The following day her blood tests are repeated and her corrected calcium level is now 3.0 mmol/L. Results of parathyroid hormone levels and thyroid function tests are still awaited. What is the most appropriate management?
. Intravenous saline rehydration
. Intravenous saline rehydration and pamidronate
. Pamidronate
. Calcitonin
. Intravenous saline rehydration plus calcitonin
12) A 66-year-old man with known metastatic squamous cell carcinoma of the esophagus is brought to the emergency room for increasing lethargy and confusion. He is clinically dehydrated, his serum calcium level is 14 mg/dL, and his creatinine level is 2.5 mg/dL but 1 month ago was 0.9 mg/dL. Which therapy for his hypercalcemia should be instituted first?
. Intravenous bisphosphonate
. Intravenous furosemide
. Glucocorticoids
. Intravenous normal saline
. Chemotherapy for squamous cell carcinoma
13) Un patient âgé de 66 ans est hospitalisé pour une hématémèse. A l'interrogatoire, vous notez qu'il a de l'hématémèse 3fois. Comme l'antécédent: l'infarctus du myocarde il y a 3mois. A l'examen clinique: TA: 98/72mmHg, FC: 100/mn, absence de marbrure. Quel critère de gravité de ce patient que vous inquiétez le plus?
Age du patient
Co-morbidité du patient
Nombre de l'hématémèse
Etat hémodynamique
Cause de l'hémorragie
14) Le 16/11/2014, 20h40, Vous êtes interne au service urgence porte d’un hôpital à Phnom Penh. Monsieur C.V, âgé de 53 ans amené par son fils pour une émission de selle noirâtre une fois à 17 heures. 20h45, l'hémorragie digestive est confirmée après votre examen. La tension artérielle est à 80/40mmHg, FC 110/mn, FR 22/mn, SpO2 96% en air ambiant, la température à 370C, Glasgow 15. Vous reprenez votre interrogatoire minutieux, vous avez noté que c’est le premier épisode de méléna. Il n’en a pas de l’antécédent médical, chirurgical ou familial connu. Il n'a jamais pris de médicament. Il n’a pas d’allergie connue. Il fume 1 paquet par jour et il boit du vin du riz 1 litre par jour depuis l’âge de 30 ans. A l'examen clinique, vous avez trouvé des angiomes stellaires, circulation veineuse collatérale avec ictère conjonctival. Quel type de médicament le plus utile prescrivez-vous pour ce patient?
Bêtabloquant
Vaso-actif
Hémostase systémique
Inhibiteur de la pompe à protons
Antifibrinolytique
15) Le 16/11/2014, 20h40, Vous êtes interne au service urgence porte d’un hôpital à Phnom Penh. Monsieur C.V, âgé de 53 ans amené par son fils pour une émission de selle noirâtre une fois à 17 heures. Le lendemain, le patient allait mieux. Il n'existe pas de désorientation temporo-spatiale. A l'examen clinique vous trouvez de l'ictère, des angiomes stellaires, d'ascite de moyenne abondance avec des circulations veineuses collatérales. Le bilan biologique: Hb: 80g/L, VGM : 84,7 fl, GB : 8,39giga/l, Plaquettes : 85 giga/l. Transaminase: ASAT: 3 fois à la normal et ALAT: 2 fois à la normal. Urée et créatinine sanguine sont normales. L'échographie a confirmé la cirrhose du foie chez ce patient. Votre sénior vous demande de faire le bilan biologique pour calculer le score de Child-Pugh. Quel est la proposition la plus appropriée pour calculer ce score?
Alpha foeto-protéine, INR, Albumine
Taux de prothrombine, Bilirubine total, Albumine sérique
Alpha foeto-protéine, Taux de prothrombine, Bilirubine totale
INR, Bilirubine totale, Taux de prothrombine
Taux de prothrombine, Bilirubine total, Albumine de liquide d'ascite
16) Vous faite la visite matinale avec votre senior, vous s'occuper d'une dame de 54ans ayant la pancréatite chronique. La patiente a des vomissements répètes, Ceux-ci sont dues aux complications de la pancréatite chronique. Quelle complication la plus probable est responsable de vomissements répétés chez cette patiente?
Carence de la vitamin
Destruction de la cellule bêta
Douleur pancréatique
Destruction de la cellule exocrine
Pseudo-kyste du pancréas
17) A 73 year old man presents with several episodes of hematemesis. Examination shows signs of orthostatic hypotension and melena. What is the first priority in caring for this patient?
. Nasogastric tube placement and gastric lavage.
. Resuscitation with adequate IV access and appropriate fluid and blood product fusion.
. Intravenous infusion of H2-receptor antagonists to stop the bleeding.
. Urgent upper panendoscopy.
. Urgent surgical consultation.
18) A fifty-eight year old female patient presents to the emergency department in Calmette hospital with a 24-hour history of several hematochesia. Physical examination show: hypotension, and anemia. Both the upper endoscopy and colonoscopy are not diagnostic. The patient continues to pass clots per rectum. Resuscitation has normalized her vital signs and maintained her Hct at 32%. What is the most effective management strategy?
. Abdominal CT scan with contrast
Magnetic resonance imaging
. Scintigraphy and angiography
. Emergency surgery with intraoperative enteroscopy
. Barium enema
19) Un home de 50 ans, obèse, vient vous voir en consultation spécialisé pour une vésicule de porcelaine ayant découverte fortuitement sur un bilan de santé. Il est complètement asymptomatique. Son médecin lui demande d’opérer, mais il a peur de l’opération. Il veut savoir votre avis. Quel est le risque s’il n’opère pas ?
Cholécystite aiguë lithiasique
. Angiocholite lithiasique
Pancréatite aiguë
. Abcès du foie
Cancer de la vésicule biliaire
20) Chez un malade adulte en état de choc hypovolémique par déshydratation suite à des pertes digestives, quel est le principe de votre expansion volémique initiale ?
1 à à 1,5 ml/kg de cristalloïdes / 20 minutes
10 à à 15 ml/kg de cristalloïdes / 20 minutes
100 à 150 ml/kg de cristalloïdes / 20 minutes
1 à à 1,5 ml/kg de colloïdes / 20 minutes
100 à 150 ml/kg de colloïdes / 20 minutes
21) Vous réalisez une RCP de base chez un patient en ACC. Dans quel ordre réalisez-vous les gestes ? A = Airways (LVAS) ; B = Breathing = ventilation ; C = Circulation = MCE
A-B-C
B-C-A
B-A-C
C-A-B
C-B-A
22) Monsieur D, 65 ans, sans antécédents connus, est adressé aux urgences pour somnolence d’apparition progressive depuis 48 h. Les examens sanguins montrent : Na+ = 130mmol/L, K+ = 7.6mmol/L, Cl = 110mmol/L, Bicarbonates = 18mmol/L, urée = 1.45g/L, créatinine = 1425μmol/L, Hb= 75g/L, GB = 9.2giga/L, plaquettes = 280giga/L, CRP = 45mg/L. Parmi les anomalies métaboliques suivantes, laquelle nécessite le traitement immédiat ?
Hyponatrémie
Hyperkaliémie
Acidose métabolique
Insuffisance rénale
Anémie
23) Un homme de 55 ans aux antécédents de diabète de type 2 et HTA sous biguanides et IEC est admis en urgence pour détresse respiratoire aiguë. Constantes : PA = 170/100mmHg, FC = 98/min, T = 37°C, FR = 30/min et SpO2 = 90% en air ambiant. Le bilan biologique montre une insuffisance rénale aiguë : urée = 1.5 g/L, Créatinine = 780 μmol/L, Ca = 80 mg/L (2 mmol/L), HCO3 = 18 mmol/L, K = 7.5 mmol/L, diurèse = 400 ml/24h. Parmi les complications cliniques et biologiques ci-dessus, laquelle nécessite l’indication d’épuration extra-rénale en urgence ?
Hypertension artérielle
Hypocalcémie
Acidose métabolique
Hyperkaliémie
Oligo-anurie
24) Mademoiselle D, 18 ans, sans ATCD connu, est amenée aux urgences pour état confus. L’examen clinique retrouve : PA = 115/85 mmHg, T= 38,9°C, fréquence cardiaque à 110/min et fréquence respiratoire à 25/min. Pas de signe de localisation en examen neurologique. L’auscultation cardio- respiratoire est sans particularité. Le gaz du sang montre : Na = 132 mmol/L, K = 5,5 mmol/L, chlore = 102 mmol/L, Bicarbonates = 8 mmol/L, pH artériel = 7, pCO2 = 18 mmHg, pO2 = 110 mmol/L et Hb = 125 g/L. La bandelette urinaire montre : sang (-), protéines traces, leucocytes +++, nitrites +, cétones +++, glucose +++. La glycémie capillaire : Hi. Quel est l’ensemble des actes thérapeutiques en urgence pour sauver cette malade ?
Insuline rapide IV continue, restriction hydrique et ATB contre bacilles gram (-)
Insuline rapide IV continue, réhydratation et ATB contre bacilles gram (-)
Insuline rapide IV continue, restriction hydrique et ATB contre bacilles gram (+)
Insuline rapide IV continue, réhydratation et ATB contre bacilles gram (+)
Insuline rapide IV continue, réhydration et ATB contre bacilles gram (-) et (+)
25) Monsieur M, 60 ans, est adressé aux urgences pour altération de l’état général. Il est hypertendu, suivi régulièrement par son médecin traitant. Il présente depuis trois jours des diarrhées liquides. A l’examen clinique, la pression artérielle est à 90/60 mmHg, la fréquence cardiaque à 130/min. Le patient a perdu 3 kg depuis le début des diarrhées. L’auscultation cardiaque et pulmonaire est sans particularité. L’examen abdominal révèle une sensibilité diffuse, sans défense ni contracture. Il présente de légères marbrures, un pli cutané persistant et réclame toutes les 15 minutes un verre d’eau. Il est apyrétique. Le bilan biologique montre : urée = 1.65mg/L, créatinine = 210μmol/L, Bicarbonate = 17 mmol/L, Na+ = 152mmol/L, K+ = 7.2 mmol/L, calcémie = 86 g/L, phosphore = 35 mg/L, albuminémie = 50g/L. La numération globulaire est sans particularité. Le bilan biologique réalisé il y a trois mois était sans particularité. Sa diurèse des 12 dernières heures est évaluée à 200ml. Quel sera votre traitement en urgence ?
Bicarbonate de sodium
Kayexalate
Bétabloquant
Antibiothérapie
Furosemide
26) Monsieur M, 60 ans, est adressé aux urgences pour altération de l’état général. Il est hypertendu, suivi régulièrement par son médecin traitant. Il présente depuis trois jours des diarrhées liquides. A l’examen clinique, la pression artérielle est à 90/60 mmHg, la fréquence cardiaque à 130/min. Le patient a perdu 3 kg depuis le début des diarrhées. L’auscultation cardiaque et pulmonaire est sans particularité. L’examen abdominal révèle une sensibilité diffuse, sans défense ni contracture. Il présente de légères marbrures, un pli cutané persistant et réclame toutes les 15 minutes un verre d’eau. Il est apyrétique. Le bilan biologique montre : urée = 1.65mg/L, créatinine = 210μmol/L, Bicarbonate = 17 mmol/L, Na+ = 152mmol/L, K+ = 7.2 mmol/L, calcémie = 86 g/L, phosphore = 35 mg/L, albuminémie = 50g/L. La numération globulaire est sans particularité. Le bilan biologique réalisé il y a trois mois était sans particularité. Sa diurèse des 12 dernières heures est évaluée à 200ml. Quelle est l’indication à l’hémodialyse en urgence ?
Elévation de l’urée
Elévation de la créatinine
Acidose métabolique
Hyperkaliémie menaçante
Oligo-anurie
27) Monsieur M, 60 ans, est adressé aux urgences pour son médecin traitement pour hypercalcémie à 120mg/L. Quel est le traitement d’une hypercalcémie sévère ?
Hydratation PO
Hydratation IV
Kayexalate
Calcitriol
Furosémide
28) Un homme de 50 ans est amené aux urgences pour crise convulsive avec perte de conscience 30 minutes auparavant. A l’arrivée il est confus et agité. Sa famille a signalé trois crises pendant les dix dernières années. Quel est votre prise en charge initiale pour ce patient?
Scanner cérébral en urgence
EEG en urgence
Diazépam en IV
Glycémie capillaire
Antiépileptique tout de suite
29) Vous êtes de garde aux urgences. Vous avez été appelé pour une céphalée aiguë modérée sans net soulagement par Doliprane 1g. L’examen physique retrouvait PA 130/70 mmHg, FC 90/min, T°37,2, FR 20/min, SpO2 98% en air. L’examen neurologique est sans particularité, notamment : conscience bonne, pas de raideur méningé, ni d’atteinte des paires crâniennes. Autres appareils sont normaux. Concernant la stratégie d’examens paracliniques, quel est votre premier choix?
Scanner cérébral en urgence sans produit de contraste
Ponction lombaire en urgence pour éliminer une hémorragie sous arachnoïdienne
Scanner cérébral avec injection pour augmenter la sensibilité
Surveillance clinique sans examen complémentaire en urgence
Réaliser une IRM cérébrale à H+10 pour rechercher un anévrisme
30) M. H. Chan 72ans, 1m65, 79kg, droitier, consulte au service de neurologie à 10h15 du 26 Juin 2016 pour troubles de la parole depuis ce matin. Dans ses antécédents, on retrouve un diabète de type II depuis plus 5 ans, un tabagisme actif à deux paquets par jour, une dyslipidémie. Il ne suit aucun traitement régulier. Au cours des 3 dernières semaines, avant, vous apprenez qu’il a également présenté une perte vision de l’œil gauche à deux reprises, épisodes entièrement résolutif en moins de 24heures.C’est sa femme qui vous explique ce qui est arrivé à M.H.Chan. Au réveil à 6h20 de même jour sans facteur déclenchant, il a présenté des troubles de la parole à type de manque du mot, apparu brutalement. A l’interrogatoire, il semble comprendre ce que vous lui demandez, et il énerve de ne pas trouver ses mots. De plus vous notez une faiblesse de l’hémicorps droit, prédominant au niveau brachio- facial. L’auscultation cardio-pulmonaire est sans particularité. La pression artérielle est à 185/90 mmHg. Quel l’examen à réaliser en urgence?
IRM Encéphalique
Scanner cérébral non injecté
Artériographie cérébral
Echo-Doppler trans crânien
IRM cérébral
31) Une jeune femme vendeuse de 23 ans venant de Takeo étant diagnostiquée un lupus érythémateux systémique grave est hospitalisé dans un service de réanimation. Ses symptômes ont commencé depuis 6 mois avec quelques épisodes de rémission sans traitement particulier. Elle a un antécédent de pneumonie bactérienne il y a six ans. Parmi Ces symptômes suivants, lequel évoquez-vous la gravité de votre patiente ?
Fièvre à 38 C
Amaigrissement
Convulsion
Chute des cheuveux
Polyarthite chronique
32) Vous avez diagnostiqué une goutte chez un patient de 45 ans venant de Kampong Thom devant une arthrite du genou droit avec hyperuricémie à 98 mg/L. Quelle est une complication grave et fréquente de la goutte ?
Insuffisance rénale chronique
Insuffisante rénale aiguë
Anémie chronique
Hypertension artérielle
Trouble hydro-électrolytique
33) Une femme ménagère de 50 ans venant de Kampong Cham vient vous voir pour une induration scléreuse des teguments évoluée depuis 9 mois. En basant sur les critères diagnostiques d’ARA en 1980, une sclérodermie systémique est diagnostiquée. Quel est un argument en faveur d’une gravité de cette maladie ?
Atteinte articulaire
Atteinte musculaire
Atteinte œsophagienne
Atteinte hépatique
Atteinte rénale
34) Un patient de 30 ans venant de Kandal vient vous consulter pour lombalgies inflammatoires, arthrite des deux genoux, de la cheville gauche, du poignet droit et uvéite bilatérale évoluées depuis 4 mois. Le diagnostic de spondylarthrite ankylosante est suspecté. Le bilan initial montre hémoglobine 12g/dl, leucocytes 18000/mm3, plaquette 658 000/mm3, VS 60 mm à la première heure, CRP 110 mg/L et HLA- B27 positif. Parmi les propositions suivantes, laquelle représente la gravité de cette maladie ?
Atteinte poly-articulaire
Atteinte extra-articulaire
Importance du syndrome inflammatoire
Importance de l’hyperplaquettose
Positivité de HLA-B27
35) Vous recevez un home âgé de 57 ans, pour une dyspnée fébrile. Il est dyspnéique, se plaint d’une toux non productive et de douleurs thoraciques postérieur droite apparues en même temps que la fièvre qui était d’emblée à 39,9°C depuis 24 heures. Son élève qui l’emmène à l’hôpital dit qu’il a une diarrhée et une fébrile. A l’examen : fréquence respiratoire à 32/min, TA à 90/50 mmHg, la fréquence cardiaque à 137 par min, la température à 39°C, SpO2 à 87% en air ambiant. Le score de Glasgow est à 13, perte de conscience pendant le transport, râles crépitants bi basales. Dentition en mauvais état. ECG : rythme régulier et sinusal, tachycardie à 128. La biologie : créatininémie 80 μmol/L; Na 138 mEq/L; Cl 100 mEq/L; K 3.1 mEq/L; glucose 0,8g/L; CRP 125 mg/L; GB 12 800 103/ml; PNN : 9500 103/ml; D- dimères 500 ng/ml. Quel critère le plus important selon le score Pneumonia Severity Index ?
 
Son âge
Le score de Glasgow à 13
L’isolement social
Le risque d’inobservance
Le sexe féminin
36) Vous êtes interne du 1er année, appelé au lit d’un patient de 53 ans aux antécédents de broncho- pneumopathie chronique obstructive (BPCO) qui présente une déstresse respiratoire aigu (DRA) avec des signes d’arrêt cardio respiratoire (ACR) imminent. Le conscience somnolence, la tension artérielle 96 /56 mmHg, la fréquence cardiaque 143 par min, la fréquence respiratoire 32/min L’examen: distension thoracique, silence auscultatoire, tympanisme unilatéral. Vous suspectez à un pneumothorax. Quel est votre prise en charge en urgence ?
Vous demandez une radiographie thorax en urgence avant d’exsuffler
Vous réalisez une exsufflation dans le 2 espace intercostal
Vous augmentez l’oxygénothérapie 2 à 6 litres/min
Vous appelez un réanimateur pour exsuffler le pneumothorax
Vous vérifiez la coagulation avant d’exsuffler
37) A 67 year-old-man with chest pain and dyspnea. The chest radiography showed findings suggestive of the left tension pneumothorax (The Figure A). Thoracentesis in the aspiration. 4 hours later coughing and had tachypnea and tachycardia, with right lung crackles heard on physical examination. The SaO2 82% roomt air. The (Figure B) chest x ray post procedure: near-immediate reexpension of the lung with new infiltrates in the whole lung. What is the diagnosis most likely complicate post procedure?
 
Reexpension pulmonary edema
Hospital acute pneumonia
Left pleural effusion
Intra alveolar haemorrhages
Right tension pneumothorax
38) Vous recez en hospitalisation d’un homme âgé 60 ans a le métier à risque la maladie professionnelle. Il vous dit qu’il touche depuis 6 mois et la dyspnée au moins d’effort a remonté à 2 semaines et douleurs basithoracique gauche. La conscience normal, la tension artérielle 120/67 mmHg, la fréquence cardiaque 120 par min, la fréquence respiratoire 14/min et la murmure vésiculaire diminuée et diminution vibration vocale à côté gauche. Le cliché de radiographie du thorax face et profil ci-joints. Quelle est la pathologie professionnelle non cancéreuse liée à l’amiante?
 
Plaques pleurales
Pneumopathie d’hypersensibilité
Mésothéliome pleurale
Adénocarcinome pulmonaire
Hémorragie alvéolaire
39) Vous recevez un homme de 49 ans pour toux aiguë et dyspnée. Il ne fume pas. Il a un métier identifié. Le symptôme a brutalement apparu pendant l’exposition au travail. Tension artérielle 120/76 mmHg, la fréquence respiratoire 28 par min et SpO2 92 % en air ambiant. Vous pensez à une pneumopathie professionnelle. Quel profession exposé le plus risqué en faveur une complication d’une pneumopathie d’hypersensibité?
Fermiers
Coiffeurs
Employés des piscines
Peintres industriels
Prothésistes
40) Vous recez en hospitalisation d’un homme âgé 60 ans a le métier à risque la maladie professionnelle. Il vous raconte d’apparition la toux et dyspnée brutale, pas de bronchospasme et associé à un syndrome pseudo grippal. Le cliché de radiographie du thorax ci-joint. Quel est le secteur d’activité est principalement responsable des pneumopathies d’hypersensibilités d’origine professionnelle?
 
Secteur agricole
Secteur minier
Secteur bâtiment
Secteur textile
Secteur automobile
41) Vous recevez une femme de 45 ans en hospitalisation pour fièvre prolongée avec abcès du coude. Elle n’a pas d’antécédent particulier. Vous avez effectué un prélèvement du pus abcédée et labo vous appel la présence de Burkholderia pseudomallei, donc votre diagnostic mélioïdose confirmée. Quelle est la complication la plus souvent rencontrée chez un sujet atteinte une Mélioïdose?
Hémoptysie
Surinfection
Choc septique
Guérison
Rechute
42) Vous êtes appelé en réanimation traumatologie au sujet de jeune homme âgé de 18 ans a été traumatisme crânien avec coma profonde. Ce patient a été bénéficié une intubation endotrachéale dès à l’admission. Au bout de 10 jours de l’intubation, la fièvre 38,8°C apparue et la sécrétion endotrachéale devenue verdâtre. Le cliché de radiographie thoracique ci-joint. Vous pensez à une pneumonie nosocomiale tardive. Quel est le taux mortalité d’une pneumonie nosocomiale de ce patient?
 
Mortalité : 10 %
Mortalité : 20 %
Mortalité : 30%
Mortalité : 50 %
Mortalité : 60 %
43) A 67-year-old-man with advanced alcoholic cirrhosis, progressive dyspnea, chest radiography showed findings suggestive of a large right pleural effusion (Panel A). Thoracentesis in the aspiration of 1500 ml 4 hours later coughing and had tachypnea and tachycardia, with right lung crackles heard on physical examination. The SaO2 82% ambiant air. The CT of the chest: diffuse areas of consolidation and ground-glass opacity in the right lung reexpansion pulmonary edema (Panel B).What is the mechanism this lung edema most likely ?
 
Increased microvascular hydrostatic pressure
Decreased microvascular oncotic pressure
Obstruction to lymphatic drainage
Increased permeability of capillaries
Decreased interstitiel space pressure
44) Vous recevez un homme de 57 ans aux urgences pour dyspnée intense et fébrile. Il a principal antécédent bronchite chronique post tabagique connu et diabète sucré type 2 avec traitement irrégulier depuis 2 ans. La maladie a remonté il y a 12-24 heures : dyspnée intense avec fièvre 39,7°C et frisson. Vous trouvez le patient est en état réanimation. Quelle est l’indication d’assistance ventilatoire ?
Respiration superficielle rapide
Respiration de Cheyne-Stokes
Respiration d’hyperventilation
Respiration par bouche ouverte
Respiration abdominale paradoxale
45) Un patient de 65 ans, vous consulte pour toux et altération de d’état général depuis 2 mois. Il a une tuberculose avec traitement irrégulier il y a 1 an. Il se plaint aussi d’asthénie intense avec dyspnée au repos. Il ne fume pas. Le contrôle 2eme mois BAAR positive. Quel est votre prise en charge en charge en 1er intension?
Compter les pilules
Examiner coloration urine
Dosage acide urique sanguine
Education therapeutique
Direct observe therapy
46) Une patiente de 59 ans cuisinière, vit avec la famille, vous suivez pour une bronchopneumopathie chronique obstructive (BPCO) biomasse consulte aux urgences pour une dyspnée d’apparition progressive. Vous évoquez donc une exacerbation bronchopneumopathie chronique obstructive (BPCO). Cliniquement, vous trouvez une légère cyanose des extrémités et des sueurs, fréquence respiratoire : 26/min, la tension artérielle 140/90 mmHg, la fréquence cardiaque : 90 par min. Les premiers gaz du sang sont les suivants : pH : 7,30 PaCO2 50 mmHg, PaO2 : 56 mmHg, HCO3 : 29 mmol/l. Quelle est la condition plus importance probable hospitaliser cette patiente?
Vit avec la famille
Sans comorbidités associé
Signes de gravités
Maladie chronique
Sujet âgé plus de 60 ans
47) Une patiente de 62 ans cuisinière, vit seule sans famille, vous suivez pour une bronchopneumopathie chronique obstructive (BPCO) biomasse stade 3 GOLD, consulte aux urgences pour une dyspnée d’apparition progressive. Vous évoquez donc une exacerbation bronchopneumopathie chronique obstructive (BPCO). Cliniquement, vous trouvez une légère cyanose des extrémités et des sueurs, la fréquence respiratoire : 26/min, la tension artérielle 140/90 mmHg, la fréquence cardiaque : 90 par min. Quelle est la complication possible de cette maladie?
 
Emphysème pulmonaire
Cancer du sein
Cardiopathie embolie gène
Pleurésie
Insuffisance respiratoire restrictive
48) Une patiente de 62 ans cuisinière, vit seule sans famille, vous suivez pour une bronchopneumopathie chronique obstructive (BPCO) biomasse stade 3 GOLD, consulte aux urgences pour une dyspnée d’apparition progressive.Vous évoquez donc à une exacerbation une bronchopneumopathie chronique obstructive (BPCO). Cliniquement, vous trouvez une légère cyanose des extrémités et des sueurs, fréquence respiratoire : 26/min, la tension artérielle 140/90 mmHg, la fréquence cardiaque : 90 par min. Quel est le facteur de risque de decompensation necessite hospitalisation en reanimation?
Dyspnée expiratoire
Tabagisme sevré
Prise de β2 mimétique de long d’action
Insuffisance respiratoire chronique
Plus une exacerbation par an
49) Vous recevez aux urgences Melle. X., 22 ans, pour une dyspnée aigue. A l’examen clinique, vous trouvez des sibilants diffus, ainsi qu’une cyanose. Les constantes sont suivantes : fréquence cardiaque : 110/min la tension artérielle : 120/80 mmHg, la fréquence respiratoire : 35/min, SpO2: 95% en air ambiant. Son mari vous montre son ordonnance qui comprend: Formeteropl et Beclomethasone. Le diagnostic asthme exacerbé retenu le plus vraisemblablement. Quel est le signe de gravité non présents dans l’énonce, recherchez vous ?
Débit expiratoire point inférieur à 60%
Murmure vésiculaire augmenté
Augmentation des sibilants
PaO2 inferieur à 80 mmHg
PaCO2 superieur à 35 mmHg
50) Vous recevez aux urgences Mr. Y, 24 ans, pour une dyspnée expiratoire intermittente. Il a une notion d’asthme depuis enfant.A l’examen clinique, vous trouvez des sibilants diffus. Les constantes sont suivantes : la fréquence cardiaque : 140/min Tension artérielle: 130/92 mmHg, fréquence respiratoire: 35/min, SpO2 : 92% en air ambiant. Son mari vous montre son ordonnance qui comprend: Formeteropl et Beclomethasone. Le diagnostic asthme aigu grave retenu le plus vraisemblablement. La prise en charge thérapeutique immédiate : Oxygénothérapie SpO2 supérieur à 94% et corticothérapie systémique. 2 heures plus tard, le patiente se plainte de douleurs dans les 2 jambes. Quelle est la condition le plus vraisemblable ?
Hypocalcémie
Hypoalbuminémie
Hypokaliémie
Hypoglycémie
Hyponatrémie
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