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Quizzes > Health & Medicine

AFI 36-2626 quiz for 4N051 Journeyman

Quick, free AFI 36 2626 practice test. Instant results.

Editorial: Review CompletedCreated By: Tanner LeeUpdated Aug 25, 2025
Difficulty: Moderate
2-5mins
Learning OutcomesCheat Sheet
Paper art illustration of Air Force medical gear and AFI 36-2626 manual on teal background promoting 4N051 Journeyman quiz

This quiz helps you check your 4N051 Journeyman knowledge of AFI 36-2626 and apply key rules to everyday aerospace medical operations. Work through short, scenario-style items and see where you need review before the test. For more practice, try our aerospace medical service quiz and the afi 36-2201 quiz to strengthen related training policy basics.

What is the primary purpose of AFI 36-2626?
To outline procedures for assignments and classification of medical personnel
To prescribe financial management guidance
To establish safety protocols for flight operations
To define the chain of command in combat units
AFI 36-2626 provides guidance on the assignment, classification, and management of Air Force medical personnel, ensuring proper career progression and utilization. It does not cover operational safety protocols or financial matters. This instruction is crucial for defining skill levels and duties within medical specialties.
The AFSC '4N051' designates which medical career field?
Civil Engineering Craftsman
Aerospace Medical Service Journeyman
Bioenvironmental Engineering
Logistics Plans Specialist
The AFSC code '4N0' refers to Aerospace Medical Service, with '5' indicating the Journeyman skill level. The designation '4N051' specifically identifies an individual qualified in this field. Other options correspond to different AFSC groupings within the Air Force.
At which skill level does a 4N051 earn the title 'Journeyman'?
3
5
7
9
In the Air Force skill level progression, the 3-skill level is Apprentice and the 5-skill level is Journeyman. The code '4N051' itself indicates a Journeyman at skill level 5. Higher skill levels such as 7 and 9 represent Craftsman and Superintendent respectively.
What does 'MTF' stand for in Air Force medical operations?
Maintenance Technical File
Medical Training Flight
Medical Treatment Facility
Mission Task Force
In Air Force medical operations, 'MTF' is the acronym for Medical Treatment Facility, which provides healthcare services to military personnel. It encompasses clinics, hospitals, and specialized treatment centers. The other options describe unrelated operational or administrative terms.
Which of the following best defines 'universal precautions'?
Using isolation rooms only for airborne diseases
Applying antibiotics to all wounds
Sterilizing equipment after every use
Treating all human blood and fluids as if infectious
Universal precautions require healthcare workers to treat all blood and certain body fluids as potentially infectious, thereby reducing the risk of transmission. It emphasizes use of PPE rather than assuming which patients are infected. The other options are components of specific infection control but do not define universal precautions.
In what order should basic PPE be donned before patient care?
Gloves, mask, goggles, gown
Gown, mask, goggles, gloves
Goggles, gown, gloves, mask
Mask, gown, gloves, goggles
The recommended sequence for donning PPE is gown first to protect clothing, then mask to cover airways, goggles for eye protection, and gloves last to avoid contaminating hands. This sequence minimizes risk of contamination during application.
What angle is recommended for an intramuscular injection?
45 degrees
90 degrees
30 degrees
10 degrees
Intramuscular injections should be administered at a 90-degree angle to ensure medication is delivered deep into muscle tissue. Angles of 45 or 30 degrees are used for subcutaneous or intradermal injections respectively.
What is the normal resting respiratory rate for a healthy adult?
6 to 10 breaths per minute
30 to 40 breaths per minute
12 to 20 breaths per minute
20 to 30 breaths per minute
A normal adult respiratory rate at rest ranges between 12 and 20 breaths per minute. Rates below or above this range may indicate respiratory or metabolic issues.
Which vital sign is measured using a sphygmomanometer?
Pulse rate
Respiratory rate
Blood pressure
Body temperature
A sphygmomanometer is the device used to measure blood pressure by occluding and releasing arterial blood flow. Thermometers measure temperature, and other tools are used for pulse and respiration.
What is the correct compression-to-ventilation ratio for one-person adult CPR?
30 compressions to 5 breaths
15 compressions to 1 breath
15 compressions to 2 breaths
30 compressions to 2 breaths
The American Heart Association recommends a ratio of 30 chest compressions to 2 ventilations for adult one-person CPR to optimize circulation and oxygenation. Deviating from this ratio can reduce effectiveness.
What does ACLS stand for in emergency medical services?
Airway Critical Life Safety
Advanced Clinical Lab Services
Acute Cardiac Line Support
Advanced Cardiovascular Life Support
ACLS stands for Advanced Cardiovascular Life Support, encompassing a set of clinical interventions for urgent cardiovascular emergency response. The other options are incorrect acronyms.
Which technique involves maintaining sterility when handling equipment and supplies during medical procedures?
Standard precautions
Aseptic technique
Wet-to-dry dressing
Surgical scrub
Aseptic technique refers to practices that prevent contamination by pathogens during medical procedures. While standard precautions reduce infection risk, they are broader. Surgical scrub is handwashing, not handling equipment.
What is the primary purpose of Standard Precautions?
To regulate controlled substances
To prevent transmission of pathogens in healthcare settings
To standardize medical record formats
To enforce base-specific force protection
Standard Precautions are infection control guidelines that reduce transmission of infectious agents between patients and providers. They include hand hygiene, PPE, and safe injection practices. Other options describe unrelated policies.
Which of the following is a key component of medical readiness?
Maximizing physical fitness testing scores
Completing professional military education
Ensuring personnel are medically qualified for deployment
Maintaining financial records
Medical readiness focuses on ensuring service members meet medical standards for deployment and mission requirements. While fitness and education are important, they fall under separate programs.
Which form is typically used by 4N051 personnel to document patient vital signs?
AF Form 570
AF Form 1142
DD Form 2766
DD Form 1380
AF Form 570 is the Medical Record - Preventive Health Assessment documenting vital signs and basic health information. DD Form 2766 records preventive and chronic care but is not used for routine vital sign logs.
Which Air Force database tracks individual medical readiness including immunizations and exams?
MHS Genesis
MEDPROS
AHLTA
CHCS
MEDPROS, the Medical Protection System, captures and tracks individual readiness data such as immunizations, physical exams, and dental status. CHCS is a clinical system and AHLTA/MHS Genesis handle health records.
What is the recommended window for reading a TB skin test according to CDC guidelines?
48 to 72 hours
72 to 96 hours
12 to 24 hours
24 to 36 hours
The CDC recommends reading a Tuberculin Skin Test between 48 and 72 hours after administration to ensure accuracy. Readings outside this window may yield unreliable results.
Which needle gauge is most commonly used for adult venipuncture?
21 gauge
23 gauge
25 gauge
18 gauge
A 21-gauge needle is commonly used for routine adult blood draws because it provides good flow while minimizing patient discomfort. Larger needles increase flow but can be more painful.
At what temperature and pressure does an autoclave typically sterilize medical instruments?
121°C at 15 psi
110°C at 20 psi
134°C at 10 psi
100°C at 5 psi
Standard autoclave sterilization cycles are 121°C at 15 pounds per square inch (psi) for a specified time, typically 15 - 30 minutes, to ensure destruction of all microbial life. Deviations can compromise sterility.
What immediate action should you take after a needlestick injury?
Cover it with a bandage only
Wash the area with soap and water
Apply ice pack
Squeeze the wound to draw blood
The first step after a needlestick injury is to wash the site thoroughly with soap and water to reduce contamination risk. Medical evaluation should follow immediately. Squeezing the wound is not recommended.
Negative pressure rooms are required for which type of disease precautions?
Droplet precautions
Airborne precautions
Contact precautions
Standard precautions
Airborne precautions require negative pressure isolation rooms to prevent pathogens from escaping into hallways. Contact and droplet precautions use private rooms but not necessarily negative pressure.
Which vaccine is contraindicated during pregnancy?
Tdap
MMR (measles - mumps - rubella)
Hepatitis B
Influenza (inactivated)
The MMR vaccine is live-attenuated and contraindicated in pregnancy due to theoretical risk to the fetus. Inactivated influenza and Tdap are recommended during pregnancy.
What is the normal hemoglobin range for healthy adult males?
9.0 to 11.0 g/dL
11.0 to 13.0 g/dL
17.5 to 20.0 g/dL
13.5 to 17.5 g/dL
Normal adult male hemoglobin levels range from approximately 13.5 to 17.5 grams per deciliter. Values outside this range can indicate anemia or polycythemia.
What does DRI stand for in the context of 4N051 medical readiness?
Defense Resource Index
Medical Duty Review Initiative
Daily Readiness Inventory
Deployment Readiness Inspection
DRI stands for Deployment Readiness Inspection, a periodic evaluation to ensure medical personnel and facilities meet deployment standards. It encompasses supplies, training, and equipment checks.
What is the minimum interval required between most live vaccines if not administered on the same day?
10 days
14 days
28 days
7 days
Live attenuated vaccines not given concurrently should be separated by at least 28 days to avoid immune interference. This allows adequate immune response to each vaccine.
Which form is used to document a member's duty-limiting medical condition?
AF Form 349
DD Form 2301
AF Form 469
AF Form 988
AF Form 469, Duty Limiting Condition Report, is used to document restrictions on duty due to medical conditions. It informs commanders of a member's limitations.
MEDPROS is an acronym for which system?
Medical Procurement System
Medical Process Server
Medical Protection System
Medical Project Software
MEDPROS stands for Medical Protection System, which manages and reports the readiness status of medical personnel. It is essential for tracking vaccines, exams, and other medical requirements.
Which system served as the primary electronic health record before MHS Genesis?
CHCS II
AHLTA
MHS eHealth
MEDPROS
AHLTA was the Department of Defense's primary outpatient electronic health record system prior to the deployment of MHS Genesis. CHCS II is largely a clinical data repository.
How often must Automated External Defibrillator (AED) readiness checks be conducted?
Annually
Daily
Monthly
Weekly
AED readiness checks, including battery and pad inspection, are recommended weekly to ensure operational status in an emergency. Monthly or annual checks are insufficient.
Which duty status indicates a member can perform all duties without restriction?
Limited duty
Non-deployable
Profiled
Full duty
Full duty status means the member is cleared to perform all assigned duties without medical restrictions. Limited duty or non-deployable indicates restrictions exist.
Under AFI 36-2626, which section outlines the awarding of skill levels and CDC requirements?
Section 3
Section 1
Section 4
Section 2
Section 2 of AFI 36-2626 details qualification requirements, including Career Development Courses (CDCs) and associated skill levels for medical AFSCs. Other sections cover general policy or specialty duties.
In aeromedical evacuation, what minimum attendant-to-patient ratio is recommended for ambulatory patients?
1 attendant per 12 ambulatory patients
1 attendant per 6 ambulatory patients
1 attendant per 10 ambulatory patients
1 attendant per 3 ambulatory patients
Air Force Aeromedical Evacuation doctrine recommends at least one attendant for every six ambulatory patients to ensure safe monitoring and care during transport. Ratios vary for litter and critical care patients.
Which classification of blood products requires constant agitation during thawing?
Fresh frozen plasma
Cryoprecipitate
Platelets
Packed red blood cells
During thawing, fresh frozen plasma must be gently agitated to ensure uniform temperature and prevent frost formation. Other components have different handling procedures.
What biocontainment level is required for handling specimens suspected of containing Mycobacterium tuberculosis?
BSL-2
BSL-3
BSL-1
BSL-4
Mycobacterium tuberculosis requires Biosafety Level 3 (BSL-3) containment due to its airborne transmission risk. BSL-2 is insufficient for TB work.
Which section of AFI 36-2626 details specialty qualification training for 4N0X1 personnel?
Attachment 3
Attachment 2
Attachment 5
Attachment 1
Attachment 3 of AFI 36-2626 contains Specialty Qualification Training Requirements and outlines tasks and proficiency standards for 4N0X1 (Aerospace Medical Service) personnel.
What is the correct storage temperature range for platelets?
20 - 24°C with gentle agitation
1 - 6°C without agitation
- 20°C in a freezer
4 - 10°C in a refrigerator
Platelets must be stored at 20 - 24°C with continuous gentle agitation to maintain viability. Refrigeration or freezing is not acceptable.
Which Air Force manual governs hazardous materials handling and PPE requirements?
AFMAN 44-149
AFMAN 36-2626
AFMAN 33-363
AFMAN 91-203
AFMAN 91-203, Air Force Consolidated Occupational Safety Instruction, outlines hazardous materials handling, PPE, and safety protocols. AFMAN 44-149 covers bloodborne pathogens specifically.
In an aeromedical environment, which device secures intravenous lines in turbulence?
Securing strap and clamp
Standard tape only
Elastic band
None - secured by gravity
In-flight, IV lines are secured using dedicated straps and clamps to prevent dislodgement during turbulence. Standard tape alone is not sufficient in a dynamic environment.
Which bloodborne pathogen standard publication must MTFs comply with?
DOT 49 CFR 172
NFPA 1751
EPA 40 CFR 260
OSHA 29 CFR 1910.1030
MTFs must comply with OSHA's Bloodborne Pathogens Standard (29 CFR 1910.1030), which outlines employer requirements for exposure control. Other regulations govern firefighting, transport, and waste.
How often must cold chain transport containers for vaccines be recalibrated?
Every month
Every 6 months
Annually
Every 2 years
Cold chain monitoring devices for vaccines should be recalibrated every 6 months to maintain accuracy and assure potency. Annual recalibration risks drift.
According to AFI 36-2626, what is the minimum on-the-job training (OJT) hours required for 5-skill level certification?
400 hours
200 hours
160 hours
320 hours
AFI 36-2626 stipulates a minimum of 320 OJT hours under supervision for awarding the 5-skill level to 4N0X1 personnel. This ensures proficiency before independent practice.
Which protocol is required for decontaminating CBRN casualties?
Standard shower only
MOPP gear removal and skin decontamination solution
Dry brushing
UV light exposure
CBRN decontamination requires removal of MOPP gear followed by systematic skin cleansing with approved decontamination solutions. Standard showers or UV exposure are insufficient.
Which AFI chapter specifies special duty identifier (SDI) requirements for 4N0X1 personnel?
AFI 44-172, Chapter 3
AFI 36-2201, Chapter 5
AFI 36-2626, Chapter 4
AFI 36-2903, Chapter 2
Chapter 4 of AFI 36-2626 outlines the awarding of Special Duty Identifiers (SDIs) and related requirements for 4N0X1 career field. Other AFIs cover dress and other specialties.
What is the maximum allowable time from blood draw to centrifugation for routine chemistry samples?
4 hours
6 hours
30 minutes
2 hours
Routine chemistry specimens should be centrifuged within 2 hours of collection to preserve analyte stability. Delays can affect test accuracy.
Under AFI 36-2626, which document must be updated when a 4N051 changes duty stations?
Family Care Plan
Medical waiver only
Leave and Earnings Statement
Training records and OJT documentation
When a 4N051 changes duty stations, their training records and OJT documentation must be updated to reflect current qualifications and progression. Other documents are unrelated to AFSC management.
Which immunization must be documented in MEDPROS within 30 days but in the Health Record within 72 hours?
Tdap vaccine
HPV vaccine
Anthrax vaccine
Influenza vaccine
The anthrax vaccine administration is entered into MEDPROS within 30 days and recorded in the health record within 72 hours to meet readiness tracking requirements. Other vaccines follow different timelines.
Which advanced qualification indicator (AQI) is awarded to aerospace medical service personnel who complete aeromedical evacuation training?
2A0X1A
3A0X1A
2A0X1B
4A0X1A
The AQI '2A0X1A' is awarded to aerospace medical service airmen upon completion of aeromedical evacuation training and assignment to AE units. It signifies advanced aeromedical qualification.
What is the required skill proficiency percentage to pass the CDC end-of-course exam for 4N051?
90 percent
80 percent
75 percent
70 percent
CDCs for 4N051 require an 80% passing score on the end-of-course examination to demonstrate competency in specialty knowledge. Scores below this threshold necessitate remediation.
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Study Outcomes

  1. Understand AFI 36-2626 Fundamentals -

    Gain a clear grasp of the key provisions and structure of AFI 36-2626 to ensure compliance with Air Force medical standards.

  2. Apply Aeromedical Evacuation Protocols -

    Learn to execute critical aeromedical evacuation procedures and decision-making steps for safe patient transport in flight.

  3. Analyze Air Force Medical Operations Scenarios -

    Evaluate common operational scenarios and make informed tactical medical decisions based on USAF best practices.

  4. Prepare for the 4N051 Journeyman Exam -

    Identify essential topics and question types to boost your readiness for the 4N051 Journeyman certification test.

  5. Interpret USAF 4N0X1 Roles and Responsibilities -

    Clarify the duties and expectations of a USAF 4N0X1 medical technician to enhance performance in real-world missions.

Cheat Sheet

  1. Scope and Structure of AFI 36-2626 -

    AFI 36-2626 outlines the policies and procedures for usaf 4n0x1 air force medical operations, ensuring consistent training and readiness standards. Remember "SCOPE" (Standardize Care, Operations, Personnel, Evaluations) as a mnemonic to recall its six main chapters. Regularly review official AFI documentation on the Air Force e-Publishing website to stay current.

  2. Aeromedical Evacuation Classification -

    This section defines patient classes I - V and aeromedical evacuation workflows, covering everything from ambulatory to in-flight critical care. Use the mnemonic "ABC-IC" (Ambulatory, Bedridden, Critical, Isolation, Convalescent) to quickly sort patients during operations. Cross-reference with the Aeromedical Evacuation User's Guide (DoD 6000.12) for real-world examples.

  3. 4N051 Journeyman Roles and Responsibilities -

    AFI 36-2626 specifies duties for the 4N051 journeyman, including supervising medical techs, validating equipment checklists, and supporting deployment missions. Remember the "5Cs" (Care, Coordinate, Communicate, Check, Document) to master daily tasks on the 4N051 journeyman exam. Official USAF training syllabi provide scenario-based exercises to test each C in action.

  4. Infection Control and Biosafety Protocols -

    Key to air force medical operations, AFI 36-2626 integrates CDC and AFOSH standards for sterile techniques, PPE use, and hazardous material handling. A quick recall phrase is "HRP" for Hazardous, Radiological, Pathogenic controls. Consult AFMAN 91-203 for detailed lab supervision and spill-response case studies.

  5. Readiness Codes and Deployment Prep -

    AFI 36-2626 defines Deployment Availability Codes (DACs) and readiness reporting for medical personnel. Use the "5Rs" (Records, Readiness, Refresher, Resources, Regs) to audit your deployment folder before signing off. The Joint Publication 4-02 offers further insight on expeditionary medical support timelines.

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