AFI 11-401 quiz: Aviation Resource Management
Quick, free AFI 11-401 practice test for aircrew rules. Instant results.
Editorial: Review CompletedUpdated Aug 25, 2025
This AFI 11-401 quiz helps you check key rules on flight authorizations, aircrew qualifications, and parachute operations, so you can see what to review before a check or training. For more practice, try the afi 36-2201 quiz and the aerospace maintenance 5 level quiz, or go deeper with the afman 23-110 quiz.
What is the primary purpose of AFI 11-401?
Outline personnel evaluation criteria
Define maintenance protocols
Establish flying procedures and standards
Describe ground transportation requirements
AFI 11-401 sets forth Air Force flying procedures and standards to ensure safe and effective operations. It covers everything from flight authorization to mission planning. This directive is central to aviation resource management and pilot conduct. .
Who is responsible for ensuring aircrew compliance with AFI 11-401 standards?
Flight Commander
Safety Office only
Individual aircrew member
Maintenance Officer
While commanders and supervisors enforce policies, each aircrew member is individually responsible for compliance with AFI 11-401. Personal accountability ensures mission safety and adherence to procedures. .
At minimum, how often must aircrew flight records be reviewed for currency?
Annually
Every 6 months
Monthly
Bi-weekly
AFI 11-401 requires a semiannual review of aircrew flight records to ensure ongoing currency and qualification. This prevents lapses in training and qualification standards. .
Which document authorizes a specific sortie under AFI 11-401?
Mission Debrief
Maintenance Release
PT Assessment
Flight Authorization
A Flight Authorization is the official order that authorizes aircrew to execute a sortie. It specifies crew members, aircraft, route, and other key details. This ensures mission legality and safety under AFI 11-401.
True or False: AFI 11-401 applies only to fighter aircraft operations.
False
True
AFI 11-401 applies to all Air Force flying operations, not just fighters. It covers transport, tanker, reconnaissance, and other mission sets to ensure standardized procedures. .
What is the minimum rest period mandatory after an alert or unplanned night sortie?
10 hours
12 hours
8 hours
6 hours
AFI 11-401 mandates a 10-hour period of continuous rest after an alert or unplanned night sortie to mitigate fatigue and ensure safety. This rest period is critical for crew performance. .
Which form is used to record parachute equipment inspections?
DA Form 2408-15
AF Form 1522
AF Form 1492
AF Form 1042
AF Form 1522 is designated for logging parachute equipment inspections, ensuring each parachute is serviceable before use. Proper documentation is essential for safety and accountability. .
True or False: Aircrew physiological training is required once every 5 years under AFI 11-401.
True
False
AFI 11-401 mandates physiological training (hypoxia and altitude chamber) every 3 years for aircrew. This ensures awareness and management of altitude-related hazards. .
Which flight time recording period is used for flight pay computation?
12 calendar months
6 consecutive months
24 months
52 consecutive weeks
Flight pay is computed over a 52-consecutive-week period to align with DoD flight pay regulations, ensuring consistency in pay entitlements. .
What is the maximum number of night vision goggles users allowed per crew under AFI 11-401?
One
Three
Two
Four
AFI 11-401 limits NVG users to two per crew to ensure adequate lighting and safe cockpit management. Exceeding this can compromise cockpit workflow. .
Which training syllabus must aircrew complete before unsupervised airdrop operations?
Airdrop Operations Course
Survival, Evasion, Resistance, and Escape (SERE)
Airlift Fundamentals
Basic Aircrew Training
The Airdrop Operations Course provides specialized instruction on cargo rigging, exit procedures, and drop zone coordination, required before any unsupervised airdrop. .
True or False: Weather minimums for formation flight are the same as for single-ship operations under AFI 11-401.
True
False
Formation flight weather minimums are more restrictive because maintaining visual contact between aircraft is vital for safety. AFI 11-401 specifies higher ceilings and visibility for formations. .
What document outlines emergency procedure training for aircrew?
AFI 11-202V3
AFI 36-2201
AFMAN 11-2
AFI 21-101
AFMAN 11-2 series manuals contain detailed emergency and abnormal procedures for each aircraft type. They are the baseline for aircrew training and checks. .
How often must parachute riggers recertify according to AFI 11-401?
Every 3 years
Every 2 years
Annually
Every 5 years
Parachute riggers must recertify every two years to maintain proficiency in packing, inspection, and repair procedures. Regular recertification prevents equipment failures. .
True or False: Aircrew physiological training includes hypoxia recognition.
True
False
Physiological training covers hypoxia recognition and proper use of oxygen systems. Recognizing symptoms early is crucial for safety at altitude. .
What minimum visibility is required for a day VFR sortie under AFI 11-401?
3 miles
10 miles
1 mile
5 miles
A minimum of 3 statute miles visibility is required for day VFR sorties. This ensures sufficient visual reference to terrain and other traffic. .
Which role approves airdrop zone selection?
Pilot in Command
Loadmaster
Jumpmaster
Airdrop Safety Officer
The Airdrop Safety Officer has the authority to select and approve drop zones based on hazard analysis and tactical requirements. They ensure compliance with safety criteria. .
What is the maximum allowable chute malfunction rate for certified parachute assemblies?
Less than 0.5%
2%
5%
1%
Certification standards require a malfunction rate under 0.5% to ensure parachute reliability. Higher rates would be unacceptable for operational use. .
Under AFI 11-401, what is the max time between periodic aircraft proficiency flights for multi-engine pilots?
120 days
90 days
180 days
60 days
Multi-engine pilots must fly proficiency sorties at least every 90 days to maintain currency. This interval balances training needs with operational demands. .
Which component of an airdrop is described by the term 'free-fall distance'?
Horizontal drift after opening
Distance after parachute deployment
Distance before parachute deployment
Altitude lost in canopy flight
Free-fall distance refers to the vertical distance an object falls before the parachute deploys. Understanding this is critical to planning safe drop altitudes. .
AFI 11-401 requires mission risk management be applied at which stages?
Planning, execution, and post-mission
Only during planning
Immediately after flight
Only execution
Comprehensive risk management per AFI 11-401 is continuous - covering planning, execution, and post-mission debrief. This lifecycle approach ensures hazards are identified and mitigated at every phase. .
What is the required minimum altitude for static-line parachute deployment training?
1,250 feet AGL
500 feet AGL
3,000 feet AGL
2,500 feet AGL
Static-line training is conducted from a minimum of 1,250 feet above ground level to ensure adequate canopy time and safety margins. Lower altitudes do not allow proper deployment and can endanger jumpers. .
True or False: Night vision goggle air refueling requires special certification beyond NVG initial qualification.
False
True
NVG air refueling is high-risk and requires additional training and certification beyond initial NVG qualification. It covers specific lighting and formation procedures. .
Which system provides real-time wind data for airdrop operations?
AN/APN-209 airborne radar
GPS alone
Ground-based AWOS only
INS exclusively
The AN/APN-209 airborne radar gives real-time crosswind and headwind data crucial for accurate drop predictions. Ground AWOS data supplements but does not replace airborne measurement. .
Under AFI 11-401, who must approve solo airdrop training flights?
Loadmaster
Squadron Commander
Jumpmaster
Safety NCO
Solo airdrop training requires Squadron Commander approval to verify that the trainee meets all prerequisites and risk mitigation measures. This ensures chain-of-command oversight. .
What is the required interval for NVG battery changes during continuous operations?
Every mission segment
Every 2 hours
Every 6 hours
Every 4 hours
AFI 11-401 recommends NVG battery changes at least every four hours to maintain illumination levels and prevent in-flight failures. Reliable power is essential for mission success. .
Which briefing must include divert airfield weather and runway data?
Maintenance Briefing
Post-Flight Debrief
Crew Mission Briefing
Safety Stand-down Brief
The Crew Mission Briefing covers primary and divert airfields, including weather, runway length, and NOTAMs, to prepare aircrew for alternate landing options. .
What is the standard separation altitude when conducting formation rendezvous?
50 feet
100 feet
300 feet
200 feet
A 200-foot vertical separation is standard to allow safe adjustments during formation rendezvous under AFI 11-401 procedures. This minimizes collision risk. .
True or False: Aircrew can self-report physiological incidents without punitive action.
False
True
AFI 11-401 encourages self-reporting of physiological incidents as part of the non-punitive safety reporting system. This enhances hazard identification and safety culture. .
Which AF form is used to record aircrew mission data?
AF Form 2408
AF Form 4148
AF Form 702
AF Form 349
AF Form 4148 logs aircrew mission data including sortie details, crew names, and flight time. Accurate records support currency and pay entitlements. .
In AFI 11-401, what action must follow an in-flight oxygen system malfunction?
Divert to nearest suitable airfield
Switch to emergency bypass only
Continue mission if below FL200
Descend to 10,000 feet and complete mission
An oxygen system failure requires diversion to ensure aircrew receive proper oxygen. Continuing the mission risks hypoxia. .
Which factor is NOT considered in airdrop weight and balance calculations?
Cargo weight
Parachute weight
Aircraft center of gravity shift
Ambient humidity
While cargo, parachute, and aircraft CG shifts are critical, ambient humidity is not a direct factor in weight and balance calculations per AFI 11-401. .
What is the minimum separation time between high-altitude (above 25,000 feet) sorties and scuba diving operations for aircrew?
24 hours
12 hours
6 hours
48 hours
To prevent decompression sickness, AFI 11-401 mandates a 24-hour wait after scuba diving before high-altitude sorties. This ensures nitrogen off-gassing. .
During a heavy equipment airdrop, which drogue parachute configuration is used for mass extraction?
Dual 16-foot rings
Continuous extraction chute
6-point multi-chute system
Single 10-foot round chute
Mass extraction for heavy equipment uses a 6-point multi-chute system to evenly distribute load forces and ensure stable extraction. .
Which sensor fusion technology in modern aircraft assists with formation keeping in low-visibility conditions?
Synthetic vision system alone
FLIR only
HUD symbology fusion
Ground radar vectored cues
HUD symbology fusion integrates data from multiple sensors (INS, FLIR, SVS) to present formation cues in low visibility, aiding pilots in maintaining position. .
What calculation must be adjusted for coriolis drift during a high-altitude parachute flight?
Ground speed estimation
Canopy inflation time
Line stretch factor
Exit separation distance
Coriolis drift affects the horizontal ground track, so pilots must adjust ground speed and heading to compensate during high-altitude drops. .
Under AFI 11-401, what advanced risk assessment tool is used for complex missions?
PAVE checklist
Air Task Risk Management (ATRM)
Crew Resource Management Matrix
Airmanship Safety Tools
ATRM is an expanded methodology for evaluating hazards on complex missions, integrating mission factors, environment, and crew capabilities. .
Which physiological metric is monitored to assess hypoxia onset during altitude chamber training?
Core body temperature
Pulse oximetry reading
Skin conductance
Blood sugar level
Pulse oximetry provides real-time blood oxygen saturation readings, critical for identifying hypoxia onset in altitude chamber sessions. .
What is the criterion for transitioning from base-leg to final approach in NVG formation?
1000 feet AGL
800 feet AGL
200 feet AGL
500 feet AGL
Formation transitions under NVG must occur at or above 500 feet AGL to maintain adequate visual references and separation. .
Describe the correct packing sequence for a steerable parachute main canopy.
RC wraps, cell folding, control lines stowed
Control lines first, then RC wraps
No cell folding required
Cell folding, RC wraps, control lines free
Proper packing includes reserve canopy (RC) wraps around the folded cells, with control lines stowed to prevent tangles. This sequence ensures deployment integrity. .
Which advanced briefing tool integrates real-time meteorological and threat data?
eBrief
AF ATOM (Aviation Tactical Operations Manager)
WAAS-enabled GPS
FORECAST
AF ATOM provides a unified display of weather, threat, and mission data for dynamic mission briefings. This enhances situational awareness. .
What approach technique is required when winds exceed 25 knots crosswind component?
Crab then slip
Wing-low method
Sideslip only
No special technique
The wing-low (sideslip) technique is mandatory when crosswinds exceed limits, aligning fuselage into wind while on final approach to maintain runway centerline. .
True or False: AFI 11-401 permits simulated engine failures below decision height during IFR approaches.
False
True
Simulated engine failures below decision height are prohibited under AFI 11-401 to avoid unnecessary risks during critical approach phases. .
Which specialized jump technique minimizes canopy oscillation in high-wind conditions?
Flat-turn
Hook turn
Toggle stalling
Slider stall
A slider stall reduces canopy oscillation by partially stalling the wing, providing a stable descent in high winds. Jumpers use it to maintain control. .
In AFI 11-401, what threshold crossing height is specified for turbine-powered aircraft VFR approaches?
50 feet AGL
200 feet AGL
150 feet AGL
100 feet AGL
Turbine-powered aircraft must cross the runway threshold at approximately 100 feet AGL for stable VFR approaches per AFI 11-401 standards. .
What is the defined maximum wind speed for free-fall training jumps?
15 knots
25 knots
20 knots
10 knots
Free-fall training is limited to winds under 20 knots at landing areas to reduce drift and improve landing safety. .
Which metric indicates canopy performance degradation due to UV exposure?
Slider stiffness
Line lengthening
Porosity increase
Pack volume change
Porosity tests measure fabric permeability; increased porosity indicates UV damage and reduced lift capacity. .
What algorithm does ATOM use to deconflict multiple concurrent airdrop corridors?
Dijkstra's shortest-path
Modified A* with lateral constraints
Bellman-Ford dynamic routing
Floyd-Warshall all-pairs
ATOM employs a modified A* algorithm tailored with lateral separation constraints to optimize deconfliction of airdrop corridors in real time. .
How does AFI 11-401 define the acceptable error margin for airborne system time synchronization?
±500 milliseconds
±250 milliseconds
±2 seconds
±1 second
AFI 11-401 specifies that airborne system clocks must synchronize within ±500 ms to ensure accurate NAV and airdrop timing. .
Which probabilistic model supports ATRM's dynamic hazard scoring for high-threat missions?
Poisson Distribution
Markov Chain Analysis
Bayesian Network Model
Monte Carlo Simulation only
ATRM uses a Bayesian Network to incorporate evolving threat intelligence and conditional probabilities into dynamic hazard scores. .
In very-high altitude (VH) jumps above 30,000 feet, what supplemental system does AFI 11-401 mandate?
Automatic activation device
24-hour hyperbaric kit
Portable oxygen bottle only
Pressure suit with redundant O2
VH jumps require a full pressure suit with redundant oxygen supply to protect against hypoxia and rapid decompression at altitudes above 30,000 feet. .
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Study Outcomes
- Understand Core AFI 11-401 Requirements -
Summarize the fundamental policies and procedures of AFI 11-401 to ensure effective aviation resource management and compliant parachute operations.
- Apply Aviation Resource Management Procedures -
Implement best practices for scheduling, tracking, and allocating Air Force resources in this aviation resource management quiz based on AFI 11-401 guidelines.
- Identify Parachute Operations Standards -
Recognize critical safety protocols, equipment inspections, and mission planning steps required for compliant parachute missions in this parachute operations quiz.
- Analyze Command Responsibilities -
Assess the roles and authorities of commanders and supervisors in enforcing AFI 11-401 directives and maintaining mission readiness.
- Evaluate Decision-Making in Resource Management -
Critique scenario-based challenges to strengthen judgment and readiness for real-world Air Force resource management test scenarios and trivia challenges.
Cheat Sheet
- AFI 11-401 Scope and Purpose -
AFI 11-401 establishes the fundamentals of aviation resource management by defining responsibilities for aircrew training, standardization, and safety processes (Air Force e-Publishing, 2022). Remember the three Ps: Policy, Procedure, and Practice to recall its primary objectives.
- Command and RM Roles -
Commanders ensure compliance with AFI 11-401 by assigning Aviation Resource Managers (ARMs) to track crew qualifications and manage flight records (USAF Aeronautical Information Manual). Use the mnemonic "CATS" (Commander Assigns, ARMs Track, Safety Ensures) to remember the chain of responsibility.
- Parachute Operations Fundamentals -
Parachute operations under AFI 11-401 cover packing, inspection, and deployment standards from the Air Force Safety Center. A quick memory trick is the "4 Ps" (Plan, Prepare, Pack, Perform) to ensure every jump adheres to approved checklists.
- Flight Crew Currency Requirements -
AFI 11-401 outlines specific currency periods for instrument checks, night flying, and high-altitude tasks; for example, IFR crew must complete three approaches in the last 60 days. Refer to official Air Force training syllabi for recurrency formulas and scenario-based drills.
- Standardization and Evaluation -
Standardization evaluation programs, managed per AFI 11-401, require periodic check rides and written exams to uphold mission-ready status. Leverage practice exams from the Air Force Institute of Technology to simulate scenarios and solidify knowledge.
