License exam - pharmacology
Mastering Pharmacology: License Exam
Test your knowledge and expertise in pharmacology with our comprehensive license exam quiz. This quiz covers a wide array of topics including anesthetics, tranquilizers, and pharmacodynamics that are essential for any pharmaceutical professional or student.
- Challenging multiple-choice questions
- Score tracking for self-assessment
- Ideal for exam preparation
1. Atropine have the following pharmacodynamic effects:
Activates peristalsis causing the evacuation of the digestive tract
It has a digestive antispasmodic effect
Increase the heart rate
It has a bronchodilator action
2. Atropine is used in pre-anesthesia to reduce:
Convulsions
Stress
Secretion of the salivary glands
Pain
3. Which of the following information about sodium glycopyrrolate are false:
Induced tachycardia is less obvious compared to atropine
Accelerates the motility of the small intestine in dogs
Induces an exciting effect
It is recommended in spasm of the abdominal viscera
4. Nicotinic receptor sites are found in all of the following locations, EXEPT:
parasympathetic ganglia
sympathetic ganglia
skeletal muscle
bronchial smooth muscle
5. α1-Receptors are associated with which one of the following effects:
Cardioacceleration
Vasodilation
Pupillary dilation
Pupillary constriction
6. Which of the following adrenergic agonists at clinical doses produces dilation of vessels inmuscle, constriction of cutaneous vessels, and positive inotropic and chronotropic effects on the heart?
Phenylpropanolamine
Isoproterenol
Epinephrine (adrenaline)
Dobutamine
7. During the period of recovery from anesthesia, is attention paid to the following issues:
Prevention of heat loss
Evolution of the pupil and the position of the eyeballs
Changing the position of the head
Postoperative hydratation
8. Which of the following anesthetics does not sensitize the myocardium to catecholamines:
Nitrogen oxide
Methoxyflurane
Enfluran
Isoflurane
9. Which are the concentrations used in Isoflurane anesthesia:
Induction 3 - 5%; 1-2% maintenance
Induction 2.5 - 4.5%; maintenance 1-3%
Induction 3.5 - 4.5%; maintenance 2 - 4%
Induction 1.5 - 2.5%; maintenance 3 - 4%
10. Which the following statement is not correct about thiobarbiturates:
Distributes rapidly in the brain, causing rapid anesthesia
With their redistribution in muscle and fat, the concentration in the brain increases
Post-narcotic sleep is shorter in species with rich adipose tissue
Post-narcotic sleep is longer in species with little adipose tissue
11. Hypnotic substances have the following pharmacodynamic actions:
Depressing on the CNS and promotes the installation of physiological sleep
Stimulating on the CNS and promotes the installation of physiological sleep
Decreased brain activity and motor capacity
It does not act on the CNS
12. Which of the following statements is correct for tranquilizers?
They can be used in the excitation phase of some nervous disorders
Enhances anesthesia and/or local anesthesia
Prevent operator shock
They have a convulsive action
13. Neuroleptic-induced vegetative-lytic syndrome is characterized by?
Actuation/excitation of the thermoregulatory center
Anti-vomiting effect
Increased appetite
None of the options is correct
14. Which of the following statement is a correct about phenothiazine tranquilizers?
They also have potent analgesic activity.
They stimulate α1-adrenergic receptors to induce hypertension.
Most of them are desirable restraining agents for aggressive dogs.
They suppress emesis by blocking dopamine receptors in the chemoreceptortrigger zone.
15. Which of the following statements about xylazine are true:
Has the ability to eliminate ketamine-induced hypertension in dogs and cats
It has a sedative action
Induces muscle relaxant and analgesic effects
The duration of local anesthesia is about 15-80 minutes
16. Which of the following statements about detomidine are true:
Recommended for all animal species
Induces xylazine-like cardiovascular disorders in horses
Induces long-term sedation and analgesia
Cannot be combined with ketamine or butophanol
17. IV administration of an α2-agonist produces all of the following pharmacological effects, EXCEPT:
bradycardia
increased GI motility
transient hypertension
diuresis
18. The α2-agonist with the most selectivity and potency for α2-receptors is:
medetomidine
detomidine
romifidine
xylazine
19. Which of the following statements about atipamezole (Antisedan®) are true:
It is an α2 adrenoceptor agonist
Neutralizes the pharmacodynamic effect of xylazine, detomidine, medetomidine and romifidine
The dose of atipamezole is 4-5 times higher than the dose of anesthetic used
No special attention should be paid to animals with heart failure and shock
20. Which of the following statements about medetomidine are true:
Administered intravenously, it acts in maximum 2 minutes
Induces bradycardia and bradypnea
The intensity of the sedative and analgesic effects is not dose dependent
Cannot be associated with opioids
21. Which of the following statements about ketamine are true:
Produces dissociative anesthesia
It has fast action without excitation phase
It has no analgesic qualities
It has a strong bronchodilator effect
22. Which of the following statements about tiletamine are true:
It is similar to ketamine, but with more intense effects at the same dosage
Do not combine with minor tranquilizers (diazepam, zolazepam, etc.)
It has no muscle relaxant qualities
May induce amnesia
23. Which one of the following statements concerning buprenorphine are true?
It is a partial agonist opioid with partial agonist activity at the μ-receptor and agonist activity at the κ-receptor.
It is an agonist–antagonist opioid with partial agonist activity at the μ-receptor.
It is a very potent μ-agonist used to immobilize nondomestic ungulates.
It is an α2-adrenoreceptor agonist in the central and peripheral nervous system.
24. Inhalant anesthetics vary in how quickly the alveolar concentration (blood concentration) will approximate the inspired concentration. Which one of the following anesthetics has the fastest rate of rise in alveolar concentration?
Sevoflurane
Desflurane
Nitrous oxide
Isoflurane
25. Which one of the following anesthetics is an NMDA receptor antagonist?
Thiopental
Propofol
Etomidate
Ketamine
26. Which injectable anesthetic is best suited for use in a small animal requiring an outpatient procedure?
Propofol
Pentobarbital
Thiopental
Tiletamine-zolazepam
27. Which of the following statements about propofol are true:
The animal recovers quickly from anesthesia
The duration of action in cats is longer than in dogs
It has no analgesic qualities
Has affinity for adipose tissue, risk of accumulation
28. In which situations is propofol recommended:
When the aim is to perform a short-term or medium-term anesthesia
When aiming for a fast and safe induction
When aiming for rapid loss of consciousness
None of the options is correct
29. Naloxone is a total antagonist for the group of medicines:
Butyrophenone
Benzodiazepines
Alpha 2-agonists
Opioids
30. Which of the following is the most frequently seen adverse effect of the prostaglandin inhibitors?
Agranulocytosis
Gastric ulcers
Renal papillary necrosis
Anemia
31. The antipyretic effect of an NSAID can result from all of the following except:
Inhibition of prostaglandin synthesis in the central nervous system
Dilation of the peripheral vasculature
Sweating
Lowering body temperature in both normal and febrile animals
32. All of the following concerning the pharmacological actions of aspirin are true, EXCEPT:
Reversible inhibition of COX-1.
Significant drug interaction with anticoagulants.
GI ulceration and hemorrhage.
Antiplatelet effects.
33. Which of the following is the correct statement concerning COX-2 inhibitors?
They decrease platelet function
They have greater analgesic activity than other NSAIDs
Their anti-inflammatory activity is better than that of other NSAIDs
They cause less gastric ulceration than other NSAIDs
34. Which of the following is an incorrect statement concerning the drug interactions of NSAID?
Concurrent use of a glucocorticoid is encouraged, since this practice will ensure better anti-inflammatory activity.
Concurrent use of diazepam may increase the activity of both drugs.
Concurrent use of gentamicin can increase nephrotoxicity of NSAID.
Concurrent use of two NSAIDs should be avoided.
35. Which of the following statements about diuretics are true:
Furosemide, ethacrynic acid and thiazides increase kaliuresis
Spironolactone prevents the reabsorption of sodium ions and the secretion of potassium and hydrogen in the distal tube
Mannitol (osmotic diureti+ causes a predominantly aqueous diuresis
None of the options is correct
36. Regarding the indications of thiazide diuretics, which are false information:
Chronic heart failure
Chronic liver and / or kidney disease
Acute heart failure
High doses cause hyperkalemia, hypernatremia and hypermagnesemia
38. About furosemide, which are true information:
Eliminate a large volume of isotonic or slightly hypotonic urine
Eliminates an increased amount of sodium, potassium, chlorine, calcium and magnesium ions
The increase in diuresis occurs quickly and is maintained for a short time;
All variants are incorrect.
37. About mannitol, which are true information:
It is indicated in the early stages of acute renal failure
It is recommended as an immediate treatment in acute intoxications with nephrotoxic substances
Not indicated in acute intoxications with aminoglycosides, barbiturates, acetylsalicylic acid.
It is indicated in cerebral edema and acute glaucoma crisis
39. Which of the following exemple is not a side effect of furosemide:
Dehydration
Electrolyte depletion (eg hyponatremia, hypochloremia, hypokalemia)
Azotemia
Pulmonary toxicity (eg acute respiratory distress syndrome)
40. About carbonic anhydrase inhibitors, which are the true information:
Sodium is no longer reabsorbed
Decreases urine volume
Decreases the alkaline reserve of the blood
It leads to the accumulation of H+ in body fluids, acidosis occurs
41. In cases of severe generalized edema, which of the following fluid compartments is increased in volume?
Intracellular
Interstitial
Transcellular
Plasma
42. Fluid and electrolyte imbalance leading to dehydration, muscle weakness, hypokalemia, and CNS depression may result from high or prolonged dosage with:
Chlorothiazide
Amiloride
Furosemide
Theophylline
43. Regarding pimobendan, all the following are true, EXCEPT:
Elimination in the dog is primarily via hepatic metabolism.
The drug is often called an inodilator.
The drug has phosphodiesterase III inhibiting effects.
The drug substantially increases myocardial oxygen requirement while increasing contractility.
44. Which of the following statements about pimobendan is correct?
It is an inodilator used in the treatment of chronic heart failure in dogs
It is a diuretic with beta-blocking properties
In cats, the half-life is almost three times shorter than in dogs
Increases survival time and improves quality of life in dogs with congestive heart failure
45. A purely venous vasodilator would be most useful in treating which of the following conditions?
Chronic, stable dilated cardiomyopathy
Aortic regurgitation from endocarditis
Cardiac tamponade with ascites
Mitral regurgitation with acute pulmonary edema
46. The effects of digital cardiotonic glycosides are characterized by?
Positive inotropic effect
Positive batmotropic effect
Negative dromotropic effect
Negative chronotropic effect
47. In general, digoxin would be indicated for a dog with:
Dilated cardiomyopathy and atrial fibrillation
Heartworm disease
Pericardial effusion
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
48. The mechanism of action of digoxin’s positive inotropic effect is:
direct stimulation of the Na+–Ca2+ exchanger
competitive inhibition of Na+, K+-ATPase
activation of Gs protein
peripheral and central sympathetic stimulation
49. A dog is presented in severe heart failure from dilated cardiomyopathy; you decide to institute therapy with a catecholamine. Regarding dopamine and dobutamine, all the following are true, EXCEPT:
Both agents have a t 1/2 between 10 and 20 minutes
Both agents have extensive hepatic metabolism
Long-term use is limited by β-receptor down-regulation.
Dopamine is more arrhythmogenic than dobutamine.
50. Drugs which act by blocking β-adrenergic receptors comprise which class of antiarrhythmic agents?
Class I
Class II
Class III
Class IV
51. Which antiarrhythmic drug is INCORRECTLY matched with its classification?
Lidocaine—Class IA
Procainamide—Class IA
Tocainide—Class IB
Quinidine—Class IA
52. When used IV, lidocaine has all of the following effects, EXCEPT:
It usually suppresses premature ventricular contractions
It consistently abolishes atrial arrhythmias
It decreases Na+ conductance in automatic cells
It has little to no effect on sinus node pacemaker function
53. Heparin is used in cats after acute thromboembolism because of its inhibitory effects on coagulation. In combination with antithrombin III, it neutralizes all the following factors, EXCEPT:
XII
X, XI
VIII
IX
54. Which of the following statements regarding route of administration for fluid therapy is correct?
The oral route causes more adverse effects than most of other routes.
The rectal route may be useful when standard IV access is impossible.
KCl in the concentration of 30 mEq/L is best given IV if parenteral administration is necessary.
The SC route is versatile in dogs and cats because it can be used to administer a large amount of isotonic, hypertonic, or hypotonic solution
55. Which of the following statements are true recommendations for rehydration therapy?
It is recommended in hypovolemia by dehydration
Not indicated in acute and chronic diarrhea
It is recommended for exhausted animals
None of the options is true
56. What are the factors that determine the amount of fluid to be administered to the animal?
Determination of % dehydration and estimation of water deficit
Amount of body water maintenance
Water losses at the time of intervention
None of the options is correct
57. Which of the following statements about dextran are correct?
They produce an increase in the circulating volume
The duration of the effect is 6 hours
It is pharmacologically inactive
It is very toxic
58. Which of the following colloid solutions has the shortest duration of action?
6% Hetastarch
6% Dextran 70
10% Dextran 40
5% Oxypolygelation
59. Flucytosine absorption is achieved rapidly and completely when?
It is administered intravenously;
It is administered orally;
In the absence of the food.
None of the options is correct
60. Flucytosine activity spectrum does not include:
Aspergillus and Coccidioides immunitis
Cryptoccus neoformons, Candida albicans, Cladosporium spp
Histoplasma capsulatum
Gram-positive bacteria
61. Co-administration of fluconazole and erythromycin may increase the risk of:
Nephrotoxicity
Hepatotoxicity
Cardiotoxicity
Encephalopathy
62. Therapeutic activity of griseofulvin is more effective when administered:
Orally and in ultramicronized form
Intravenous and in ultramicronized form
Subcutaneous and in micronized form
Intramuscularly and in ultramicronized form
63. Which are the therapeutic indications for griseofulvin:
Dermatophytosis of the skin, hair and nails
Nematodes of small animals
Candidiasis infections
Viral infections
64. Co-administration of amphotericin B with colistin potentiates:
Therapeutic effect
Cardiac toxic effect
Renal toxic effect
Ototoxicity
65. All of the following statements concerning ketoconazole are true, EXCEPT:
It is more effective than flucytosine for meningeal cryptococcosis since it penetrates the CNS more completely
It inhibits ergosterol synthesis in both systemic mycotic infections and candidiasis (yeast infections)
Cortisol and testosterone synthesis in mammals is inhibited at high doses
It must be administered for 3–6 months in therapy for systemic mycoses
66. Ketoconazole is characterized by:
Very high toxicity
Relatively low toxicity
Nephrotoxicity
Cardiotoxicity
67. What is the most widely used antifungal in the treatment of Aspergillus fumigatus infections:
Terbinafine
Clotrimazole
Itraconazole
Flucitozine
68. Nystatin is used to treat mycoses caused by fungi such as:
Candida, Aspergillus, Sporotrichum
Tricophyton
Microsporum
It has no antifungal action
69. Which of the following enilconazolol indications in veterinary medicine are correct:
It is a topical antifungal used in the treatment of dermatophytosis in animals
It is a systemic antifungal
It is active against the genera Aspergillus and Penicillium
None of the options is correct
70. What does the term "antibiotic" mean?
Synthetic analogues of natural substances that destroy protozoa and helminths
Substances produced by some micro-organisms and their synthetic analogues which selectively destroy or inhibit the growth of another micro-organism
Inorganic or synthetic substances which selectively destroy or inhibit the growth of other micro-organisms
Substances produced by some microorganisms and their synthetic analogues that inhibit the growth of cells in the body
71. A good example of the responsible use of antibiotics in animals is:
Use of a broad-spectrum antibiotic instead of a narrow-spectrum antibiotic
Prescribing antibiotics before vaccination to prevent possible infections
Avoiding the use of antibiotics for bacterial infections secondary to a viral infection.
The selection of antibiotics should be made on the basis of the antibiogram
72. Which is the most important factor in the selection of antibiotics:
A. Age of the animal
B. A definite indication for the use and choice of antibiotics
C. Previous experience with the use of antibiotics in animals in similar situations.
Price
73. Which of the following uses of antibiotics in farm animals is no longer approved:
A. Prevention
Treatment
Control
Growth promoter
74. Which are the mechanisms of antimicrobial resistance:
Inactivation or destruction of the antibiotic
Inhibition of antibiotic entry into the cell
Target modification (antibiotic binding sit+ so that the antibiotic molecule can no longer react with cellular components
Elimination of antibiotic (active efflux)
75. Infectious or transferable drug resistance, which involves transfer of multiple-drug resistant genes via pili, has been observed clinically in Gram(–) infections of the:
Urinary tract
Intestinal tract
Respiratory tract
Skin
76. A therapeutic protocol with anti-infectious substances should aim at:
Maintaining a serum concentration above the MIC (minimum inhibitory concentration)
Do not administer the therapeutic dose more than 4 times
The curative dose should be higher than the preventive one
None of the options is correct
77. To be active, an antibiotic must:
To penetrate all barriers to its bacterial target
Not to be inactivated
Be able to relate to his target
Act locally to reduce the risk of toxicity
78. The bacteriostatic effect means:
Inhibition of bacterial growth
Destruction of bacterial cells
Acceleration of bacterial cell division
Accelerating the division of young bacterial cells
79. What are the general principles of anti-infectious therapy:
Optimal route of administration, dose, frequency of dosing and duration of treatment
Identification of bacterial infection and susceptibility of the microorganism
Non-involvement of microbiological factors
All are correct
80. The minimum duration of antibacterial treatment is usually:
Not less than 5 or 7 days
Not less than 10-14 days
Not less than 3 weeks
Not less than 1 day
81. The rational combination of antimicrobials is used to:
A broad spectrum of antimicrobial action
To prevent antibiotic resistance
Antibacterial synergism (when microorganisms are not effectively eradicated with just one antibiotic
All
82. Which of the following antibiotic combinations is correct:
Crystalline penicillin and chloramphenicol
Crystalline penicillin and streptomycin
Ciprofloxacin and streptomycin
Sulfamides and penicillin
83. Which of the following statements about antibiotic associations are correct:
The main reason for the association of antibiotics in veterinary medicine is to obtain a broad or ultra-wide antibacterial spectrum.
The combination of two bacteriostatic antibiotics does not usually lead to a synergistic effect
The associations lead to the limitation of the toxicity of some antibiotics, by reducing the doses of each one
Bactericidal antibiotics active in the multiplication phase may be associated with bacteriostatic antibiotics
84. Antibiotics that inhibit bacterial cell wall synthesis are:
Beta-lactam antibiotics
Tetracyclines
Macrolides
Aminoglycosides
85. Considering the pharmacology of the penicillin G and the first-generation cephalosporins, all of the following are true, EXCEPT:
They inhibit peptidoglycan cross-linking in the third stage of bacterial cell wall synthesis.
Bacterial resistance is most commonly due to β-lactamase production.
Tissue penetration of cephalosporins is superior to penicillin G and thus they are preferred for antibiotic prophylaxis in surgery.
They are eliminated primarily by hepatic metabolism and biliary excretion of conjugated drug.
86. Which beta-lactamase inhibitors are used with amoxicillin and ampicillin:
Clavulanic acid
Tazobactam
Sulbactam
All are correct
87. Cephalosporins are recommended for the treatment of:
Infections with gram-negative microorganisms
Viral infections
Infections with gram-positive microorganisms
Infections with gram-negative and gram-positive microorganisms, if penicillins have no effect
88. Trimethoprim or ormetoprim combined with a sulfonamide results in all of the following, EXCEPT:
a sequential blockade of folate synthesis in susceptible bacteria.
a decreased ability of sulfonamides to produces dry keratoconjunctivitis (KCS).
a decrease in the rate of development of resistant bacteria.
an extended antibacterial spectrum.
89. Two semisynthetic penicillins that are effective against Pseudomonas spp. are:
Methicillin and ampicillin
Ampicillin and amoxicillin
Amoxicillin and ticarcillin
Ticarcillin and piperacillin
90. The aminoglycoside antibiotics such as amikacin and gentamicin:
Are lipid soluble and distribute widely to tissues including the CNS.
Are not effective against Gram(–) anaerobes because their uptake by bacteria is oxygen linked.
Are bacteriostatic at therapeutic concentrations.
Are well absorbed orally if they are enteric coated to protect them from gastric acid
91. Adverse reactions to the aminoglycoside antibiotics include all of the following, EXCEPT:
Neuromuscular blockade
Myelosuppression and anemia
Nephrotoxicity
Ototoxicity
92. Tetracyclines are broad spectrum and bacteriostatic by a mechanism of action that involves
Binding to the 30S ribosome to inhibit the addition of aminoacids to the growing peptide chain
Binding to phospholipids in bacterial cell membranes to increase permeability
Binding to the 50S ribosome to inhibit peptidyl transferase
Inhibition of DNA gyrase
93. Considering the pharmacology of the and tylosin, all of the following are false, EXCEPT:
inhibits the first step of cell wall synthesis and thus is bactericidal in growing bacteria.
may produce anemia by blocking iron uptake in erythroblasts
antibacterial spectrum includes mycoplasma
is usually effective in organisms resistant to erythromycin
94. Considering the pharmacology of the and clindamycin, all of the following are false, EXCEPT:
Is primarily active against Gram (–) pathogens
Is used in equine enteric infections since it is a poorly absorbed “enteric” macrolide
Distribution is generally limited to the ECF
Is frequently effective in staphylococcal osteomyelitis
95. Which of the following antibiotics have a bacteriostatic effect:
Carbapeneme
Cephalosporins
Lincosamide
Aminoglycosides
96. Which of the following therapies is not correct?
Lincomycin—swine dysentery
Florfenicol—bovine respiratory disease
Tetracycline—psittacosis in birds
Chloramphenicol—mycoplasmal pneumonia in swine
97. Three antibiotic used topically or orally but not parenterally (primarily because of nephrotoxicity) are:
streptomycin, kanamycin, bacitracin
polymixin B, bacitracin, neomycin
bacitracin, tiamulin, polymixin B
neomycin, gentamicin, rifampin
98. What is the antibiotic that inhibits bacterial RNA synthesis:
Imipenem
Rifampicin
Chloramphenicol
Erythromycin
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