Project Management
Master Project Management: 205 Questions to Boost Your Skills
Test your knowledge and understanding of project management with our comprehensive quiz featuring 205 carefully crafted questions. This quiz is perfect for aspiring project managers, professionals looking to sharpen their skills, or anyone interested in the principles of effective project management.
Key benefits of taking this quiz:
- Evaluate your project management knowledge.
- Identify areas for improvement.
- Gain confidence in your skills.
1. A project is a permanent effort undertaken to create a unique service, product or result.
True
False
Other
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2. Project Operations is the application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet project requirements.
True
False
Other
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3. Project manager skills have leadership skill and Communicates effectively.
True
False
Other
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4. Stakeholders has high influence, risk, and uncertainty at the start of project.
True
False
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5. ISO scale is a legal obligation when running a business. (mandatory)
True
False
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6. Strong matrices have many characteristics of functional organization structure.
True
False
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7. Suppliers that provide materials to conduct a project are considered stakeholders.
True
False
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9. A Project has time, cost, quality, and resource constraints.
True
False
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10. Any individual, group or organization that could impact or be impacted by implementation or completion of a project is considered a project manager.
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11. The project charter Indicates the work that will be done and the deliverables that will be produced
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13. All projects have requirements and objectives which desired to be achieved
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14. Project management plan. Describes how the work will be performed.
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15. Market requirements are reasons why projects are created.
True
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16. A project charter is a document that formally authorizes a project. It should include, either directly or by reference to other documents
True
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17. The project and Process are constrained by limited recourses.
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18. Details supporting the scope statement should be documented and organized as needed to make it difficult to use through other project management processes.
True
False
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19. Scope changes don’t require adjustments to cost, time, quality, or other project objectives.
True
False
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20. Corrective action is anything done to bring expected future project performance in line with the project plan.
True
False
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21. The scope management plan can be informal and broad or formal and detailed, based on the needs of the project.
True
False
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22. Decomposition involves subdividing the major project deliverables or sub-deliverables into smaller, so it become less manageable components until the deliverables.
True
False
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23. Work breakdown structure (decomposition) helps the deliverables to be defined in sufficient detail to support the development of project life cycle
True
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24. Planning tasks for tomorrow is an important point for time management
True
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26. Mandatory and external dependencies is inputs of the sequence activities
True
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27. Sequence Activities is Defining and documenting dependencies and sequencing between schedule activities
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28. Sequence Activities is Making a list of all the activities and tasks that need to be implemented
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32. Project leveling takes into account the pressure of tasks within the float time of the project
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33. We can’t develop a project schedule without having the project network diagram (activity sequencing) and activity duration estimates.
True
False
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34. Quality planning is identifying which quality standards are relevant to the project and determining how to meet them.
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False
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35. Quality insurance is evaluating overall project performance regularly to provide confidence that the project will satisfy the relevant quality standards.
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False
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36. Quality Control monitoring specific project results to determine if they comply with relevant quality standards and identifying ways to eliminate causes of unsatisfactory performance
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False
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37. Accuracy is the degree of accuracy of the information taken from any test
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38. The cost of preventing mistakes is always much more than the cost of correcting them, as revealed by inspection.
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39. Conformance is the process of comparing the product and similar product in the market
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40. Quality improvement and rework is the outputs from quality control
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41. Cost of non-conformance when the error is detected is reproduction and the price of the bad products
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42. Acceptance decisions involve immediate corrective or preventive action as a result of quality control measurements .
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43. Risk responses have been implemented as planned. This is the purpose of risk monitoring.
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44. Performing a qualitative analysis of risks and conditions to prioritize their effects on project objectives called Risk Identification.
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45. Budgeting defines how often the risk management process will be performed throughout the project life cycle.
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46. Corrective action is one of the inputs from risk monitoring and control
True
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47. Avoidance is one of the tools of risk response planning
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48. Business risk is risk with negative potential only.
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49. Secondary risk are risks that remain after a risk response strategy was implemented.
True
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50. The scoring and interpretation methods appropriate for the type and timing of the qualitative and quantitative risk analysis being performed.
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51. Triggers are indications that a risk has occurred or is about to occur.
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52. It is impossible to analyze and convert risks into financial amounts.
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53. Risk is a definite event that could have negative or positive effect on your project.
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54. Residual risks are risks that resulting from implementing a risk response strategy.
True
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55. Risks with negative consequences are called opportunities.
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56. Some companies look for risks because the profit in them is high.
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57. Watch list is a document specifying the degree of probability and impact of each of the expected risks.
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58. Risk averse -avoider- is the area in which companies that want to increase profit operate.
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59. Chances of the risks occurring is high at the end of the project.
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60. Risk monitoring and control is the process of keeping track of the identified risks, monitoring residual risks and identifying new risks, ensuring the execution of risk plans, and evaluating their effectiveness in reducing risk.
True
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61. Planning meetings are one of the Tools and Techniques for Risk Management Planning.
True
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62. Timing defines how often the risk management process will be performed throughout the project life cycle.
True
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63. Risk Prone can be also called seeker.
True
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64. Project stakeholder management t includes the processes required to make the most effective use of the people involved with the project.
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65. Team developing doesn’t affect project performance.
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66. Part-time job represents working two days a week, a task with a task, a certain number of hours.
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67. Roles and Responsibilities assignments answer the questions of who does what and who decides what.
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68. The organization chart for a three- to four person internal service project is likely to have the rigor and detail of the organization chart for a 3,000- person disaster response team.
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69. Project HR management includes the processes required to make the most effective use of the people involved with the project.
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70. Roles and responsibilities are fixed over time.
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71. A flow chart is any graphic display of project reporting relationships.
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72. A project team directory lists all the project team members , other stakeholders and the business competitors.
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73. Team developing doesn’t affect project performance.
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74. Preventive action is anything that reduces the probability of potential consequences of project risk events.
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75. Project integration management must occur just within the context of a particular project.
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76. Project Plan Development is carrying out the project plan by performing the activities included therein.
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77. Earned Value Management (EVM) is a technique used to integrate the project’s scope, schedule, and resources to measure and report project performance from initiation to closeout.
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78. Other knowledge areas do not affect Project Integration Management.
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79. Project integration management does not include interface management.
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80. The assumption is an input of the Project Plan Development process.
True
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81. Project integration management is the process of unification, consolidation, and articulation.
True
False
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82. Without a plan, you can expect your project to be completed on time and delivered successfully.
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83. A contract is an output if the project is being done for an external customer.
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84. The project management information system part of the enterprise environmental factors provides access to an automated tool.
True
False
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85. Work performance information is used in the monitoring and controlling processes to analyze information.
True
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1)is temporary effort undertaken to create a unique service, product, or result.
A. Operation
B. Project
C. Task
D. Process
2) ............................ Are continuous and iterative, while.....................are temporary and singular.
A. Process, Project
B. Task, Operation
C. Operation, Project
D. Operation, Process
3) In..............organization structure staff members are grouped by specialty
A. Functional
B. Projectized
C. Flat
D. Multi-divisional
4) Projects are characterized by being:
A. Temporary
B. Unique
C. A Progressive elaboration
D. All of the above
5)provide a documented basis for making future project decisions and for confirming or developing common understanding of project scope among the stakeholders.
A. Supporting detail
B. Scope statement
C. Scope management plan
D. Cost analysis
6) The scope statement should include, either directly or by reference to other documents:
A. Project justification.
B. Project’s product.
C. Project deliverables.
D. Project objectives.
E. All the above
7)involves subdividing the major project deliverables or subdeliverables into smaller, more manageable components until the deliverables are defined in sufficient detail to support development of project activities.
A. Decomposition
B. Formal acceptance
C. Verification
D. Planning
8) 4D for Time Management are ......
A. Do, delegate, done, demand
B. Do, delegate, delay, delete
C. Do, delete, drums, decay
D. Delete, delay, demand, develop
9) According to Time Management Matrix you should ........Workplace gossip?
A. Do
B. Delegate
C. Delay
D. Delete
10) The process of identifying and documenting interactivity dependencies
A. Activity Definition
B. Activity Duration Estimating
C. Activity Sequencing
D. Schedule Development
11) A successful project manager should
A. Provide stressful environment to work in
B. Be able to develop teamwork
C. Be poor listener
D. Make self-promotion
12) In functional organization structures, project manager’s authority is
A. High to almost total
B. Moderate to high
C. Little or none
D. Low to moderate
13) All of the following are stages of the project life cycle except:
A. a. Distribution
B. Initiating
C. Planning
D. Monitoring and controlling
14) The motives through which the projects are being contemplated is satisfying:
A. Market requirements
B. Objective of the department or organization
C. Customer requirements
D. All of the above
15) Developing a written scope statement as the basis for future project decisions is
A. Scope planning
B. Scope definition
C. Scope authorizing
D. Scope verification
16) Inputs of initiation of the Scope Management include all the following except:
A. Product description
B. Historical information
C. Expert judgement
D. Strategic plan
17) A document that formally authorizes or declares a project and it should include the business need of the project, and product description
A. Business Case
B. Project Charter
C. Scope statement
D. Project plan
18) The scope statements should include, either directly or by reference to other documents:
A. Project deliverables
B. Constraints
C. Assumptions
D. Product description
19) Inputs of plan of scope management are .................
A. Expert judgement
B. Work breakdown structure
C. Constraints & Assumptions
D. Cost analysis
20) Outputs of plan of scope management are..................
A. Scope statement
B. Scope management plan
C. Supporting detail
D. All the above
21) Project Time Management includes these processes except:
A. Activity Definition
B. Activity Sequencing
C. Activity Duration Estimating
D. Scope statement
22) Make a list of all the activities and tasks that need to be implemented to complete the project deliverables is:
A. Activity Definition
B. Activity Sequencing
C. Activity Duration Estimating
D. Schedule Development
23) All of choices are Sequence Activities inputs except :
A. Activity list
B. Product description
C. ADM
D. milestones
24) Project manager skills are
A. He can build a team
B. Able to overcome and solve problems.
C. He can decide.
D. All of the above
25) The characteristics of projects are …
A. temporary
B. singular
C. a & b
D. None of the above
26) matrices have many of the characteristics of project organization.
A. Weak
B. Balanced
C. Strong
D. None of the above
27) is the application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet project requirements.
A. project
B. Project management
C. Project requirements
D. Project activities
28) Project selection methods ……
A. Involves measuring value or attractiveness to the project owner.
B. Required to assess the inputs to this process.
C. Document that formally authorizes a project.
D. Factors that will limit the project management team’s options.
29) …… are factors that will limit the project management team’s options.
A. Project charter
B. Project manager identified/assigned
C. Constraints
D. Assumptions
30) Project charter is a ............. Of initiation
A. Input
B. Output
C. Tool
D. None of the above
31) Tools and techniques for initiation are:
A. Project selection methods
B. Expert judgment
C. Historical information
D. a & b
32) The project management include:
A. Determine requirement.
B. Clear goal that can be implemented.
C. A and B
D. Life cycle
33) project outlines include:
A. Scope
B. Quality
C. Time and cost
D. All the above
34) are related to the objectives they achieve. As the output of one process usually becomes the input to another process or becomes one of the project deliverables.
A. Project management process groups.
B. The project document.
C. Project life cycle
D. Projectstakeholders
35)is any modification to the agreed-upon project scope as defined by the approved WBS.
A. Corrective action
B. Scope changes
C. Lessons learned
D. Adjusted baseline
36) The formal acceptance is the output of:
A. Scope definition.
B. Plan of scope management.
C. Scope verification.
D. Scope change control.
37) Corrective action is………….:
A. Is any modification to the agreed-upon project scope as defined by the approved WBS.
B. Is anything done to bring expected future project performance in line with the project plan.
C. Document describes how project scope will be managed and how scope changes will be integrated into the project.
D. Provides a documented basis for making future project decisions and for confirming or developing common understanding of project scope among the stakeholders.
38) Not one of 4D Time Management:
A. DO
B. Delegate
C. Delay
D. Determine
39)to identify which activities are needed, the project team may identify missing deliverables, or may determine that the deliverable descriptions need to be clarified or corrected.
A. Work breakdown structure updates.
B. Supporting detail.
C. Activity list.
D. Project network diagrams
40) are quantitative assessments of the likely number of work periods that will be required to complete an activity.
A. Supporting detail.
B. Project network diagrams.
C. Activity duration estimates.
D. Activity list.
41) estimating the number of work periods that will be needed to complete individual activities.
A. Schedule Development
B. Schedule Control
C. Activity Duration Estimating
D. Activity Sequencing
42) From the important points about time management is
A. Planning tasks for tomorrow today.
B. Harassment in the work environment.
C. Rejecting activities and tasks outright.
D. All the above
43) If the optimistic estimate is two the pessimistic is ten and the most likely is six What is pert estimate?
A. 6
B. 8
C. 7.5
D. 10
44) All of the following are inputs of Develop Schedule, except?!
A. Project network diagrams
B. calendars
C. Constrains
D. Schedule management plan
45) the...... Analyzing activity sequences, activity durations and resource requirements to create project schedule.
A) Activity Sequencing
B) Schedule Development
C) Activity Duration Estimating
D) Schedule Control
46) Haw many ways are there for sequential planning ?
A. 4 ways
B. 3 ways
C. 5 ways
D. 6 ways
47) Outputs from Schedule Development include ..............
A) Corrective action
B) Resource requirement updates
C) Basis of estimates
D) Activity list updates
48) We should...... Unurgent important tasks in the project
A. Do
B. Delegate
C. Delay
D. Delete
49) All the following are Scope Definition inputs except:
A. Scope statement
B. Assumptions
C. Historical information
D. Project Description
50) This document describes how project scope will be managed and how scope changes will be integrated into the project
A. Scope statement
B. Project objectives
C. Supporting detail
D. Scope management plan
51) is allocating the overall cost estimate to individual work activities.
A. Resource Planning
B. Cost Estimating
C. Cost Budgeting
D. Cost Control
52) ... Is controlling changes to the project budget
A. Resource Planning
B. Cost Estimating
C. Cost Budgeting
D. Cost Control
53) ... Is determining what resources (equipment, mate rials) and what quantities of each should be used to perform project activities
A. Resource Planning
B. Cost Estimating
C. Cost Budgeting
D. Cost Control
54) ........ Is a forecast of most likely total project costs based on project performance and risk quantification
A. Estimate at completion
B. Estimate to completion
C. Earned Value
D. Actual Cost
55) when running some projects, some of the results of this project is CPI 1.3 and SV is negative. Comment on this project results:
A. Ahead of schedule-under budget
B. Behind schedule-over budget
C. Behind schedule-under budget
D. On schedule-over budget
56) If CPI is less than 1, and SPI is more than 1 it means that the project is:
A. Over budget, behind of schedule
B. Under budget, behind of schedule
C. Over budget, ahead of schedule
D. Under budget, ahead of schedule
57) ………. Developing an estimate of the costs of the resources needed to complete project activities:
A. Cost budgeting
B. Cost estimating
C. Cost control
D. Resource planning
58)......................is/are modifications to the cost information used to manage the project.
A) Budget updates
B) Corrective action
C) Revised cost estimates
D) Estimate at completion
59) it is the value of the work that has been accomplished, and it is a common measure that relates cost to time:
A. Earned value
B. Actual cost
C. Planned value
D. Estimated value
60) Outputs from Cost Control.................
A- Revised cost estimates
B- Budget updates
C- Corrective action
D- Estid- Estimate at completionmate at completion
E- All of the above
61) All the following are cost estimating inputs except:
A) Resource requirements
B) Risks
C) Historical information
D) Cost estimates
62) Identifying which quality standards are relevant to the project and determining how to satisfy them …................
A. Quality assurance
B. Quality control
C. Quality
D. Quality planning
63) Quality planning inputs ............
A. Quality policy
B. Scope statement
C. Product description
D. All of the above
64) tools and techniques of quality assurance ...................
A. Quality management
B. Results of quality
C. Operational definitions
D. Quality audits
65) Quality management plan is the inputs of ...............
A. Quality control
B. quality Assurance
C. Quality planning
D. Both a and b
66) .... Refers to the total cost of all efforts to achieve product/ service quality, and includes all work to ensure conformance to requirements, as well as all work resulting from nonconformance to requirements
A. Cost of Quality
B. Cost of conformance
C. Cost of non-conformance
D. All of the above
67) ... is/are the organization’s bylaw, which contains a set of rules or policies for organizing work
A. Guidelines
B. Rules
C. Quality
D. Cost of Quality
68) ... is/are explanatory list for each rule
A. Guidelines
B. Rules
C. Quality
D. Cost of Quality
69) ... Is the process of comparing the product and similar products in the market
A. Conformance
B. Non-conformance
C. Quality control
D. Benchmarking
70) ... Is the process of comparing the goal to be reached and the current result
A. Conformance
B. Non-conformance
C. Quality control
D. Benchmarking
71) ... Is identifying which quality standards are relevant to the project and determining how to satisfy them ...................
A. Quality assurance
B. Quality control
C. Quality
D. Quality planning
72) Outputs from risk management planning is...
A. Timing
B. Scoring
C. Budgeting
D. All of the above
73) Risk might affect the project and documenting their characteristics is.....
A. Risk identification
B. Qualitative risk
C. Quantitative risk
D. All of the above
74) Negligible impact with 90% probability is
A. Low risk
B. Moderate risk
C. High risk
D. Extreme risk
75) Risk is an/a ............ Event that could have a positive or negative effect on your project
A. certain
B. uncertain
C. sudden
D. permanent
76) Defines how often the risk management process will be performed through the project cycle
A. Timing
B. Methodology
C. Budgeting
D. Management
77) ...................... Is the systematic process of identifying, analyzing, and responding to project risk. It includes maximizing the probability and consequences of positive events and minimizing the probability and consequences of adverse events to project objectives.
A. Scope Management
B. Cost Management
C. Risk Management
D. Time Management
78) Risks with ...................... Consequences are called opportunities.
A. Negative
B. Positive
C. Neutral
D. Bad
79) when do you perform risk identification?
A. At the beginning of a project
B. During the project life cycle
C. During project execution.
D. None of above
80) ............. Implementing contingency plans or workarounds frequently results in a requirement to change the project plan to respond to risks.
A) Workaround plans
B) Corrective action
C) Project change requests
D) Risk database
81) ............... Is the process of keeping track of the identified risks, monitoring residual risks and identifying new risks.
A) Risk monitoring and control
B) Risk planning
C) Risk analysis
D) Risk identification
82) ................... Deciding how to approach and plan the risk management activities for a project.
A. Qualitative Risk Analysis
B. Risk Management Planning
C. Risk Monitoring and Control
D. Quantitative Risk Analysis
83) ........................the degree of occurrence or the number of recurrences (once a day – a week).
A. Probability of occurrence -Likelihood
B. Hazard Risk
C. Influence Diagram
D. Tornado Diagram
84) ....................... A specific technique by which the financial value of some available opportunities is measured.
A. Assumptions Analysis
B. Mission Critical Risks
C. Expected monetary value analysis
D. SWOT Analysis
85) .......................is a an important document that shows the degree of acceptance of risks for companies.
A. Risk impact scales definition
B. Project charter
C. Risk register
D. Revised stakeholders’ tolerances
86) ....................The degree of occurrence or the number of recurrences, it explores the likelihood that an identified risk could occur.
A. SWOT analysis
B. Urgency assessment
C. Probability of occurrence
D. Damage degree
87) ................ , are indications that a risk has occurred or is about to occur.
A. Triggers
B. Warning signs
C. Risk symptoms
D. All of the above
88) ................. Are unplanned responses to emerging risks that were previously unidentified or accepted.
A. Workarounds
B. Checklists
C. Triggers
D. Assumptions
89) .................. represents Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities and Obstacles.
A. Hazard Risk
B. Influence Diagram
C. Tornado Diagram
D. SWOT Analysis
90) ................... It is the area in which companies that want to increase profit operate.
A. Watch List
B. Secondary Risk
C. Risk Prone, seeker
D. Residual Threats
91) All the following are outputs from Risk Identification except............
A. Risks
B. Triggers
C. Risk management plan
D. Inputs to other processes
92) All the following are processes of project human resource management ,except:
A. Corrective action
B. Organizational planning
C. Staff Acquisition
D. Team development
93) Project organization charts in HR..............
A. Allow you to have better clarity and understanding of the project
B. Promote collaboration among team members
C. Project tracking becomes simple and effective
D. Determines the organizational structure of the institution
94) Staff may be assigned .............. Based on the needs of the project.
A. Full-time
B. Part-time
C. Over-time
D. All of the above
95) It is a matrix of skills for all the activities that is needed, and each skill is assigned to a person who performs it according to the skills of the people.
A. Matrix organization
B. Project team directory
C. Resource calendar
D. Skills matrix
96) The theory of the organization that determines how to motivate employees to obtain the highest productivity from them.
A. Bureaucratic theory
A. Bureaucratic theory
C. Organizational theory
D. Behavioral management theory
97) Team development tools is....
A. collocation
B. General management skills
C. training
D. All of the above
98) Organizational outputs is......
A. Supporting detail
B. templates
C. HR practices
D. Project interface
99) Documenting and assigning project roles responsibilities and reporting relationships is..........
A. Organizational planning
B. Staff acquisition
C. Team development
D. All of the above
100) The theory of the organization that determines how to motivate employees to obtain the ................. From them.
A. Highest productivity
B. Highest effort
C. Lowest effort
D. More money
101) Staff ........... Is getting the human resources needed assigned to and working on the project
A. acquisition
B. choosing
C. productivity
D. improvement
102) A ………. Is a document that formally recognizes the existence of a project and provides direction on the project's objectives and management.
A. Project charter
B. Preliminary scope statement
C. Business case
D. Project management plan
103) ….. Includes the processes required to ensure that the various elements of the project are properly coordinated.
A- Project Scope Management
B- Project Integration Management
C- HR Management
D- Stakeholders.
104) Which of the following is a process of Project Integration Management?
A- Project plan development
B- Scope Management.
C- Project Life Cycle.
D- Risk management.
105) ….. Is one of the inputs of the Project Development Process.
A- Stakeholders Skills and Knowledge
B- Information Systems
C- Historical information
D- Earned Value Management
106) Status Review Meetings is a technique used in …….
A- Project Plan Development
B- Integrated Change Control
C- Project plan execution
D- Time Management
107) Identifying which quality standards are relevant to the project and determining how to satisfy them …................
A. Quality assurance
B. Quality control
C. Quality
D. Quality Planning
108) Quality planning inputs are ............
A. Quality policy
B. Scope statement
C. Product description
D. All of the above
109) Tools and techniques of quality assurance are ...................
A. Quality management
B. Results of quality
C. Operational definitions
D. Quality audits
110) A quality management plan is the input of ...............
A. Quality control
B. Quality Assurance
C. Quality planning
D. Both a and b
111) A process of approving changes and managing changes to deliverables is ……….
A) Perform integrated change control.
B) Develop project charter.
C) Develop a project management plan.
D) Close Project
112) .………. Is the process of tracking, reviewing, and reporting the progress of meeting the performance objectives defined in the project management plan.
A) Direct and manage project work.
B) Develop project charter.
C) Perform integrated change control.
D) Monitor and control project work.
113) Which of the following are tools and techniques needed to develop a project charter?
A) Project charter
B) Facilitation techniques
C) Expert judgment
D) Business case
114) What is the primary purpose of the integration management process?
A) To coordinate all project management knowledge areas
B) To monitor and control project work.
C) To define project scope and requirements
D) To create a detailed project schedule
115) Which of the following is NOT a key process in integration management?
A) Develop project charter.
B) Develop a project management plan.
C) Direct and manage project work.
D) Control quality
116) The document issued by the project initiator or sponsor formally authorizes the existence of a project and provides the project manager with the authority.project
A) Project charter
B) Project management plan
C) Directed project work.
D) Monitored project work.
117) The last process in the project integration management is……
A) Direct and manage project work.
B) Monitor and control project work.
C) Perform integrated change control.
D) Close project or phase
118) Which of the following is the statement of work (SOW) references?
A) Market demand
B) Organizational need
C) Customer needs
D) Business need
119) All of the following is an example of such judgment and expertise applied to any technical & management sources except……
A) Consultant
B) Industry design
C) Subject matter expert
D) Project management work
120) All of the following are project integration management processes except:
A) Develop project charter.
B) Develop a project management plan.
C) Direct and manage project work.
D) Strategic Plan
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