MEDICINE Dally Test Day 01
Which of the following tests for the diagnosis of Graves disease is the LEAST useful?
Highly sensitive thyroid – stimulating hormone test
Thyrotropin releasing hormone stimulation test
Free T4 test
Thyroglobulin level
Which of the following statements about fecal occult blood testing is correct?
The test has a sensitivity of greater than 90% for detecting colon neoplasia in an asymptomatic population
A positive result does not always indicate colon neoplasia
A positive result in the presence of hemorrhoidal disease never requires further workup
All of the above
Which of the following statements concerning hepatitis markers is FALSE?
Hepatitis B surface antigen levels remain elevated in patients with chronic hepatitis B infection
Infection with hepatitis delta virus requires a concomitant hepatitis B infection
Non – A, non – B hepatitis infections can be diagnosed by the presence of hepatitis B core antibodies
In acute infection, hepatitis B core antibody levels are elevated before hepatitis B surface antibodies
Earliest Indicator of sodium loss is –
Altered sensorium
Reduced skin turgor
Arrythmia
Orthostatic hypertension
A 9 – year – old boy fell from a slide and hit the ground with his arm in full extension. There is swelling of his elbow and the palm of his hand. He will not extend his arm at the elbow because of pain. Radiographs of his arm were obtained. Which of the following statements is False?
An effusion means fracture, even if it is not visualized on radiographs
Radiographs of the unaffected arm would be helpful for comparison
The most common fracture in children of this age is fracture of lateral condyle of humerus
Elevated fat pads indicates an effusion
The probability that the disease is present when the test result is positive is the test’s:
Specificity
Predictive value
Accuracy
Sensitivity
Nitrate tolerance, which is associated with long – term use of nitrates in angina, may be avoided by :
Using decreased doses on a q.i.d basis
Coadministering vitamin B6
Allowing an 8 to 12 hour nitrate – free period each day
Rotating sites of application of nitrate patches
A 29 – year – old woman presents with bilateral galactorrhea. A blood test for human chorionic gonadotropin is negative. Her serum prolactin level is very high. The test of choice is a:
Magnetic resonance imaging scan (with contrast) of the sella turcica and pituitary
Computed tomography scan (with contrast) of the head, with thin pituitary cuts
Skull series
Mammogram series
Which of the following pairs of drugs or substances and their antidotes is INCORRECT? For:
Cyanide overdose give sodium nitrate
Methanol overdose give ethanol
Ethylene glycol overdose give ethanol
Tricyclic antidepressant overdose give atropine
All of the following woman are undergoing mammography. In which of these cases is screening mammography being performed?
A 55 – year – old woman with a normal physical examination no family history of breast cancer
A 65 – year – old woman with a palpable breast mass and no family history of breast cancer
A 65 – year – old woman with persistent discharge from the left nipple
A 30 – year – old woman with a palpable breast mass and a family history of breast cancer
A patient presents with an elevated osmolal gap, oxaluria, and metabolic acidosis. The MOST LIKELY diagnosis is:
Methanol intoxication
Ethanol overdose
Ethylene glycol intoxication
Isopropyl alcohol ingestion
A 3 ½ year – old boy presents with a sore throat and high fever. He is drooling and refuses to lie down for abdominal exam. His mother says he has had an upper respiratory infection that has suddenly gotten worse. The next step should be to obtain:
An abdominal radiography series
A computed tomography scan of his head
Radiographs of the soft tissue of his neck (with maternal supervision)
An ENT consult
MM isoforms of creatine kinase are clinically useful for determining:
Successfully reperfusion in patients with myocardial infarction who are treated with streptokinase
Stable versus unstable angina
The bet thrombolytic agent for acute myocardial infarction
The precise onset of acute myocardial infarction
A 59 – year – old woman with a history of breast cancer, metastatic to the lungs and bones, has now developed confusion, lethargy, nausea, and vomiting. Further questioning indicates that she also appears to have polyuria and constipation. She completed chemotherapy 6 weeks ago and since then has been on hormonal therapy. She was started on sustained – release morphine sulfate and a nonsteroidal anti – inflammatory agent 1 month ago because of worsening bone and back pain. Based on this history, you decide to admit her to the hospital. Our initial workup and treatment are based on a suspected diagnosis of:
Progressive debilitation from lack of nutrition and emotional distress from the breast cancer
Adverse reaction to the analgesic medications
Hypercalcemia
Intracranial metastases
Respiratory arrest due to respiratory alkalosis is rectified by –
Insuffation with carbon dioxide
Insuffation with oxygen
Insuffation with helium
Insuffation tracheotomy
Which of the following is the feature of Y chromosome?
Acrocentric
Telocentric
Submetacentric
Metacentric
A 26 – year – old woman presents with nausea, vomiting and epigastric pain of 3 days duration. She denies alcohol intake. Laboratory tests reveal elevated alkaline phosphatase and liver enzyme levels, with mildly increased bilirubin. You should request:
A barium enema radiographic series
A computed tomography scan with thin cuts through the pancreas to exclude pancreatic carcinoma
An abdominal ultrasound evaluation
An oral cholecystogram
A 47 – year – old white male comes to you for a routine physical examination. He is physically fit and has been a sun worshipper all his life. He is blond and has blue eyes, but states that he tans easily and does not burn, although he did suffer a bad sunburn during his early childhood. Examination reveals an nonpruritic, non painful, hyperpigmented lesion with red and brown coloration and irregular borders on his upper back. There are no palpable lymph nodes. He states that he was not aware of this lesion. What is the MOST APPROPRIATE next step?
Perform a shave biopsy of the lesion for microscopic examination
Recommend the use of sunscreen and reevaluate in 6 months
Schedule a chest radiograph (2 views)
Schedule a wide excisional biopsy as soon as possible
A patient has a normal bleeding time but a prolonged partial thromboplastin time and defective clotting in the test tube. Which of the following would most likely make corrective blood component therapy successful?
Packed red blood cells
Platelet concentrates
Fresh – frozen plasma
Cryoprecipitate
Which of the following antihypertensive agents causes the highest incidence of constipation?
Diltiazem
Verapamil
Isradipine
Felodipine
A 21 – year – old asthmatic female who takes birth control pills presents with pleuritic chest pain, mild hemoptysis decreased O2, and an increased A – a (alveolar – arterial) gradient. Her chest radiograph findings are negative. Her right lower extremity is tender and has been swollen for 1 week. Findings of a V/Q scan are reported as low probability of pulmonary embolism. She has an iodine allergy. You should:
Order a computed tomography scan of her chest, looking for other intrathoracic pathology
Repeat the chest radiography after hydration to see if pneumonia blooms
Order a pulmonary angiogram
Document deep venous thrombosis by compression ultrasound and treat her with anticoagulants if there are no other contraindications
A severely anemic patient has a low serum vitamin B12 level. A Schilling test is performed after oral ingestion of radiolabeled vitamin B12. The measured urinary excretion is 2% of the total dose (normal > 7%). Following the ingestion of radiolabeled vitamin B12 and intrinsic factor, the urinary excretion remains at 2%. These findings indicate:
A dietary deficiency of vitamin B12
An intrinsic factor deficiency
Malabsorption of vitamin B12 secondary to jejunal disease
Malabsorption of vitamin B12 secondary to ileal disease
The BEST predictor that a staging radionuclide bone scan will be negative when assessing newly diagnosed, untreated prostate cancer is/are:
Clinical evaluation findings
An increased serum alkaline phosphatase level
An increased acid phosphatase level
A prostate – specific antigen value of <8.0 ng/mL (2 times the upper limit of normal)
The cytology report on a routine cervical smear (Papanicolaou’s) of a 27 – year – old sexually active woman is positive for squamous cell carcinoma in situ, with evidence of viral infection. The MOST APPROPRIATE next step is to:
Repeat the smear in 3 to 6 weeks
Schedule a total hysterectomy
Schedule a Conisation
Schedule cryotherapy
Which of the following drug groups is associated with an increased risk of osteoporosis?
Tetracyclines
Thiazide diuretics
Calcium channel blockers
Corticosteroids
A 53 – year – old woman who is postmenopausal and on hormone replacement therapy is seen for a yearly checkup. On physical examination, you palpate a 1 – cm rounded, nontender mass in the upper inner quadrant of her right breast. You send the patient to have a mammogram, which is negative. You should tell her the results are negative and:
Advise her to get yearly follow – up mammograms
Advice her to return for clinical follow – up and a mammogram in 3 to 6 months
Refer her to a surgeon
Send her for an ultrasound evaluation to see if the mass is solid or cystic
All of the following are indicators of hemolytic anemia EXCEPT increased:
Serum bilirubin
Plasma/serum haemoglobin
Urine urobilinogen
Urine bilirubin
Use of whole blood for transfusion is justified in which of the following clinical situations?
Nutritional anemia
Rapid massive blood loss
Bleeding caused by thrombocytopenia
All of the above
In what percentage of patients with anorexia nervosa amenorrhoea is a presentation –
25%
50%
80%
100%
A 33 – year – old woman with moderately severe rheumatoid arthritis was started on therapy with acetylsalicylic acid, 625 mg q.i.d. subsequently, 200 mg of ibuprofen t.i.d and weekly injections of gold were bugen. After 3 months she developed a pruritic eruption on her wrists, forearms, and lower legs. Examination reveals 2 to 3 mm violaceous, shiny, polyangular, flat – topped papules in the affected areas. The scalp, oral cavity, palms, and nails are all normal. There are some healed lesions that exhibit only marked hyperpigmentation. What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis?
Rheumatoid nodules
Gottron’s papules
Mixed connective tissue disease
Lichen planus due to the medications
Three days after arriving from Varanasi , a 34 – year – old male develops cramping abdominal pain associated with the passage of 10 bloody stools per 24 hours. He is mildly dehydrated but afebrile and has nonspecific abdominal tenderness. Which of the following is the MOST APPROPRIATE management option for this patient?
Avoid the administration of antimotility agents#
Being treatment with metronidazole
Begin a 3 to 5 days course of empiric ciprofloxacin (b.i.d) or trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole
Institute fluid replacement and recommend mandatory antimicrobial prophylaxis for future travel abroad to high – risk areas
A 32 – year – old woman comes to your office complaining of severe right knee pain that was present upon awakening this morning. She said that she had bumped her knee on a table leg 24 hours ago. She cannot recall having any similar episdoes previously, and she has no history of sexually transmitted diseases. On exam, her right knee is swollen and warm with moderate – to – severe pain on range of motion, which is significantly limited. The MOST APPROPRIATE initial management is :
Administration of a nonsteroidal anti – inflammatory drug
Intra – articular injection of steroids, rest the knee, and recheck in 1 week
To aspirate the joint, send samples for culture and sensitivity testing and start antibiotic therapy when the test results are known
To aspirate the joint and start empiric antibiotics intravenously
Which of the following statements about ulcers from venous stasis following a previous episode of thrombophlebitis is NOT TRUE?
Patients can develop phlebitis that is not recognized clinically, such as occurs when wearing a cast for treatment of leg injuries
Treatment of venous ulcers will require some form of external compression, I.e., compressive hose with pressure of 30 to 40 mm Hg or a gel cast (Unna’s paste boots)
Topical application of superhigh – potency (class I or II) steroids is needed to control dermatitis
Debridement of dead tissues by whirlpool or surgical excision is necessary
A 45-year-old man has a history of progressive weakness for 5 weeks. He had particular difficulty getting out of the bath. On examination there was severe truncal and proximal limb weakness, without wasting or fasciculation. Tendon reflexes, plantar and sensation were all normal. The vital capacity was 1.8L. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Cervical myelitis
Guillain-Barre syndrome
Polio
Polymyositis
The second-generation antihistamines (e.g., astemizole and terfenadine):
Have more sedating and anticholinergic side effects than first-generation antihistamines.
Are generally less expensive than first-generation antihistamines.
Have greater antihistaminic activity than first-generation antihistamines.
Have been shown to prolong the QT interval and cause cardiac arrhythmias.
Which of the following correctly defines a sunscreen with an Sun protection factor -SPF of 20? The skin:
Penetration factor is 20 times greater than that of a sunscreen with an SPF of 1.
Permeability flow is 20 milliseconds.
Can be exposed 20 times longer before burning than skin which is unprotected.
Protective factor is 20 times more resistant to removal by exposure to water.
All of the following statements regarding Helicobacter pylori (HP) infection are true EXPECT:
Production of a urease enzyme increases local pH, promoting the survival of HP in the acidic environment of the stomach.
The prevalence of HP infection among patients with gastric ulcers is lower than in those with duodenal ulcers.
HP can be confirmed by biopsy of duodenal mucosa.
HP is major cause of nonautoimmune antral gastritis.
A 49-year-old man presents with several large, purulent, painful ulcers on the legs. He believes these began after trauma. He says that recently he has had canker sores in his mouth. Physical examination confirms necrotic ulcers with purulent drainage on both legs; the borders are undermined. The results of a complete review of systems are negative. Which of the following diagnoses is the MOST UNLIKELY?
Pyoderma gangrenosum
Bromide or iodide ingestion
Erythema nodosum
Erythema induratum
Three clinical features are listed below. For each, select the MOST LIKELY diagnosis. Each diagnosis may be used once, more than once, or not at all. Clinical features: Serum antimitochondrial antibody
Primary sclerosing cholangitis
Primary biliary cirrhosis
Hemochromatosis
Wilson’s disease
Pyridoxine deficiency can cause all except –
Convulsion in infants
Anemia
Peripheral neuritis
Growth retardation
Main treatment for hypoventilation with obesity is –
Diresis
Weight loss
Oxygen mask
Respiratory stimulants
A 58-year-old man with a history of heartburn develops progressive dysphagia for solid foods over a 4-month period. He has insulin-dependent diabetes and is taking a diuretic and digitalis for mild congestive heart failure. Although he has gained 15 pounds over the past year, he believes that there has been some recent loss of weight. A barium swallow and upper gastrointestinal radiographic series demonstrate an area of esophageal narrowing immediately upstream of a hiatus hernia. What is the MOST APPROPRIATE management?
Advise the patient to lose weight and sleep with the head of the bed raised; administer full dose antacids and schedule for follow-up in 2 to 4 weeks.
Advise the patient to lose weight and sleep with the head of the bed raised; administer H2 receptor antagonists and schedule for follow-up in 2 to 4 weeks.
Assume pill-induced esophagitis and stop administration of the diuretic
Refer the patient for upper endoscopic evaluation and possible dilatation.
A woman with long-standing rheumatoid arthritis is being treated with methotrexate. She sees her rheumatologist twice yearly and has monthly follow-up visits with you for routine monitoring. You should counsel the patient or perform appropriate laboratory testing for each of the following conditions EXCEPT:
Symptoms of pulmonary toxicity (cough and shortness of breath)
Urinary protein
Liver enzyme elevations
Leukopenia on complete blood cell count
A 30-year-old woman consults you because of a flesh-colored papule on her chin. She believes it has been there for a while, but recently it bled after trauma. Physical examination shows a 4 mm, flesh-colored lesion with a central crust from recent trauma. The patient is blue-eyed and freckled and exhibits other stigmata of frequent sun exposure. Which of the following is correct?
This is probably a dermal nevus, which is a benign lesion. Removal will not be covered by insurance, and it will leave a scar. The patient should avoid trauma.
This is likely an actinic keratosis, for which you prescribe 5% 5-fluorouracil.
The patient should start using sunscreen.
A biopsy for evaluation of possible basal cell epithelioma, which tends to be aggressive should be performed.
All of the following statements regarding fecal occult blood testing are true EXCEPT:
Oral ferrous sulfate does not interfere with test results.
Only 5% to 10% of positive tests result from colorectal carcinoma.
Adenoma with a diameter of <2 cm are not likely to bleed
Testing more than three consecutive first –of-the day stools increases the yield of asymptomatic neoplasms.
A 58-year-old man comes to your office for treatment of “jock rash”. He says that for the last year he has had a spreading rah on the perineum, scrotum, and inner thighs. Use of antifungal powders and creams and wearing boxer shorts have not improved the problem. He has minimal pruritus but is embarrassed by the appearance. He has eight individual, erythematous lesions that are somewhat moist on the perineum,scrotum, and thighs. No other lesions are noted. His feet are normal. Which of the following statements is most correct? The patient:
He has a yeast infection and should be treated with ketoconazole, 200 mg b.i,.d. for 4 weeks
Has tinea corporis and should respond well to any of the nonprescription antifungals currently available. He should wear white boxer shorts, and his feet should also be treated
Most likely has Paget’s disease and one or several of the lesions should be biopsied for pathologic evaluation
Most likely has intertrigo, and he should be instructed about better hygiene.
Select the BEST RESPONSE regarding flexible sigmoidoscopy and screening for colorectal carcinoma.
Over 85% of reported cancers are likely to be within reach of the 60-cm flexible instrument.
An adenoma is found during less than4% screening procedures.
Hyperplastic and adenomatous polyps cannot be reliably distinguished by endoscopic visualization alone.
The complication rate for the 60-cm instrument is similar to that utilizing the 35- cm sigmoidoscopy.
In evaluating the allergic patient, skin testing is:
More specific and sensitive than the radioallergosorbent test (RAST)
More sensitive than RAST, but less specific.
Less cost-effective than RAST.
Less sensitive than RAST, but more specific.
An 83-year-old man comes for a routine examination. He says he is well but has noted that his feet and ankles have been swelling more than usual. Otherwise, he has no complaints. He has no evidence of herart disease, liver enlargement, of jaundice. A few spider telangiectasia are seen on his legs; he has no obvious varicosities. On both ankles and feet are several brown macules, some of which feel firm to palpation. A consultant suggests he has Kaposi’s sarcoma and recommends a biopsy. Which of the following statements is correct ? The lesions:
Should be biopsied and, if positive, sent to the AIDS clinic for complete evaluation and treatment
Should be biopsied and, if positive the patient should be instructed to watch to watch for melena.
Are diabetic dermopathy, and a glucose tolerance test is indicated.
Are probably postinflammatory hyerpigmentation and need no further evaluation. Diuretics will clear the edema.
An 82 – year – old woman complains of abdominal fullness and mild dyspnea 3 days following hip replacement surgery. She is afebrile and has a normal blood pressure and pulse. Her abdomen is distended, tympanic to percussion, and a few scanty high –pityched bowel sounds are present. Although the abdomen is tender, there is no peritonitis. The chest radiograph is normal, but the abdominal films demonstrate dilatation of the colon with mild distension of the distal ileum. The cecum is 9.5 cm in diameter. The blood count is normal. Which of the following is the MOST APPROPRIATE immediate management?
Perform an emergency colonscopy for decompression, exclude electrolyte disturbance and narcotic use, follow clinically, and obtain radiographs regularly
Prepare the patient for sigmoidoscopy followed by an abdominal computed tomography scan if negative
Perform an emergency air, double – contrast enema rdiography with small bowel follow – through if negative
Insert nasogastric and rectal tubes, exclude electrolyte disturbance and narcotic use, follow clinically and obtain radiographs regularly
Which of the following conditions is currently under investigation for an association with silicone breast implants?
Autoimmune hepatitis
Polymyositis
Polyarteritis nodosa
Mixed connective tissue disease.
A 28-year-old homosexual male known to have the acquired immunodeficiency syndrome is admitted to the hospital because of complaints of not feeling well, chills, fever, nausea, and anorexia of 48 hours duration. He has been on prophylactic treatment for Pneumocystis carinii. On physical examination he looks ill. Hairy leukoplakia and thrush are seen. His lungs are clear, and a chest radiograph is reported as unremarkable. Scattered over his arms, legs, and trunks are small, 2 to 5 mm erythematous papules that are asympromatic. The patient thinks these developed in the previous few days, but is not certain. You request a routine complete blood cell count, liver enzymes, renal function studies, urinalysis, and cultures of the blood and urine. Which of the following skin biopsy tests is/are also indicated ?
Histopathology including special stains for fungi and fungal cultures
Immunofluorescent stins to identify the HIV virus.
Culture for herpes simplex
Immunofluorescent stains for herpes simplex
Interferon is useful treatment for decompensated cirrhosis in–
Chronic hepatitis B
Chronic hepatitis C
Both a and b
Neither a or b
A 32 – year – old woman consults you for evaluation of several lesions on both tibial surfaces. The lesions started as madly tender, red – to violaceous papules and plaques. They slowly enlarged, and several on the left tibia coalesced into a large 4x6 cm plaque. With time the lesions became depressed, with atrophy of the central epidermis and dermis. The base of the lesions had clearly visible capillaries and a yellowish color. The edges of the lesions were a yellowish – pink color. The lesions ulcerated following trauma and healed slowly. Which of the following statements is correct? The patient should be:
Started on high – dose systemic steroids since you suspect the lesions are most likely the result of a bite from a brown recluse spider
Instructed to apply topical emollients daily, protect the lesions from injury and have a glucose tolerance test performed
Reassured that these lesions represent a common disorder called morphea and will resolve spontaneously
Thoroughly evaluated for a malignancy because these lesions represent Bowen’s disease (carcinoma in situ) and are a cutaneous sign of internal malignancy
Acne vulgaris is characterized by the presence of pustules on the face, chest, and back. Which of the following statements is MOST correct?
Acne is usually self – limiting by the age of 20
Acne pustules are infections of the follicles caused by Staphylococcus aureus
Tetracycline and erythromycin are often used to treatment acne because of their anti – inflammatory effects
The treatment of choice for routine acne is cis – retinoic acid
A 50 – year – old woman describes a 1 – year history of gradually increasing pain and swelling of her hands and wrists bilaterally. Over the last 3 months, she has also had pain and swelling of her ankles, knees, and elbows. Examination reveals bilateral synovitis of the wrists, metacarpophalangeal and proximal interphalangeal joints, knees, and ankles. A rheumatoid factor test is negative. In order to meet the 1987 American College of Rheumatology revised criteria for a diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis, which of the following tests would you order?
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
Bilateral knee radiographs performed with the patient standing
Radiographs of the hands and wrists
Joint aspiration for mucin clot and string sign
An 18 – year – old male comes to you for a routine examination. He is covered by innumerable dark, irregularly shaped, almost macular spots. Some are present on the lips and the palms. He says he has been in good health. He does spend long hours sunbathing, and he thought the spots were related to sun exposure. Possibly, they began appearing during his early childhood. On physical examination, a systolic murmur is noted over the pulmonary artery. He is rather short. He states that he reached puberty at the age of 15. He has a pectus excavatum and a high – arched palate. Which is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis?
These are dysplastic nevi, and he is at high risk for melanoma. The lesion should be excised as soon as possible
These are freckles drakened by the sun and are of no significance
He is normal and can expect to have a normal life
He might have the multiple lentigines syndrome that affects the heart and is, at times, associated with atrial myxomas. This is a genetic disorder and needs further evaluation
An 8 – year – old child, who is in for a routine physical examination, is noted to have about 10 hyperpigmented macules that are approximately 2 to 3 cm in diameter scattered over his integument. These have gradually developed since infancy. His father and other family members have similar spots=select one +which are asymptomatic. A few freckles are noted in the axillary vault. Which is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis?
These macules are common nevi
These macules probably represent postinflammatory hyperpigmentation from some disorder like pityriasis rosea
These macules might be an indicator of adrenal insufficiency, and adrenal and pituitary function tests are indicated
These macules might be café au lait spots and suggest a neurocristopathy such as neurofibromatosis. A more complete history physical, and laboratory evaluation are indicated
A 32 – year – old woman presents with abdominal pain and diarrhea. Five years previously she underwent a right hemicolectomy with removal of 25 cm of distal ileum because of Crohn’s disease. She has subsequently experienced a number of simiarl episodes and has received numerous courses of high – dose corticosteroids over several years, with partial relief. She has cushingoid features and appears pale. She has early lenticular cataracts. Her abdomen is mildly distended and bowel sounds are very active. Edematous perianal skin tags are present but there are no sinuses or suggestion of a perianal abscess. Stools are negative for ova and parasites. The abdominal radiograph demonstrates small bowel air – fluid levels. Initial treatment consistes of nasogastric suction, intravenous fluids, and intravenous corticosteroids and the obstructive features settle after a few days. She is able to tolerate a soft diet without any problems and the stool frequency and consistency improve. A small bowel follow – through radiographic series demonstrates a long, narrowed area immediately upstream of the anastomosis, which is consistent with active Crohn’s disease. A colonoscopy reveals diffuse, patchy colonic ulceration with granulomas on histological evaluation. Which is the MOST APPROPRIATE management option?
Surgery
Immunosuppressive therapy
Long – term high – dose metronidazole
Total parenteral nutrition at home
The most acceptable treatment for chronic sinusitis includes :
A broad – spectum antibiotic (e.g., amoxicillin, trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole, or cefaclor)
High dose guaifenesin and oral alpha – adrenergic agonists to thin out respiratory secretions and to increase ostial patency
Saline solution and steam to liquefy secretions and increase mucociliary clearance, especially in the ostiomeatal complex
All of the above
A 64 – year – old man complaining of palpitations was evaluated by a 24 – hour Holter monitor. The recording showed premature ventricular contractions with couplets, for which quinidine was prescribed. He presented to the emergency department with weakness and asyncope, and the electrocardiogram showed polymorphic ventricular tachycardia. Initial management should consist of:
Measurement of plasma quinidine level
Treatment with disopyramide
Discontinuation of quinidine and observation
Treatment with procainamide intravenously
Which of the following study results would confirm a diagnosis of sarcoidosis?
Positive gallium – 67 scan
Elevated serum angiotensin converting enzyme
Reduced carbon monoxide diffusing capacity of the lung
Biopsy showing noncaseating granulomas
A 46 – year old man presents with a history of prolonged substernal chest pain radiating to the jaw that began 6 hours earlier. The most useful and reliable enzyme test for acute myocardial infarction is:
The lactic dehydrogenase isoenzyme ratio
Aspartate amnotransferase
MB isoenzyme of creatine kinase
Aldolase
Which group of the following organism consists of common causes of community – acquired pneumonia?
Streptococcus pneumoniae, Mycoplasma pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenza
Streptococcus pneumoniae, Klebsiella pneumoniae, Escherichia coli
Klebsiella penumoniae, Legionella pneumophila, Streptococcus pyogens
Legionella pneumophila, Streptococcus pyogenes
The most reliable evidence of right ventricular infarction is:
Hypotension
Right atrial pressure of 6 to 8 mm Hg
ST segment elevation in the right precordial leads V3R to V4R.
Neck vein distension with clear lung fields on a chest radiograph
Which of the following pathogens is the LEAST LIKELY cause of community acquired pneumonia in a 64-year-old man with a long history of smoking?
Haemophilus influenza
Moraxella catarrhalis
Pneumococcus
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
A 36 – year old woman sustained insect bites in a wooded area. On week later, a rash developed at the site of one of the bites. The rash was flat, erythematous, and measured about 12 cm in diameter; it persisted for 2 weeks and then cleared. The patient was well for another 3 weeks, and then she experienced a syncopal attack. A second degree heart block was found on EKG. Which of the following diagnoses is the most likely?
Relapsing fever
Lyme disease
Coxsackievirus myocarditis
Parvovirus infection
Cardiogenic shock in acute myocardial infarction is caused by all of the following EXCEPT :
Aggregate loss of 40% of left ventricular myocardium
Papillary muscle rupture
Perforation of the intraventricular septum
Perforation of the intra – atrial septum
A 62 – year – old man is admitted to the hospital for surgical resection of a colonic carcinoma. Two days postoperatively he complains of the onset of shortness of breath. He arterial PO2 is 59. His chest radiograph shows only bibasilar areas of plate like atelectasis. His radioisotope ventilation – perfusion lung scan shows low probability of pulmonary embolism on interpretation. The appropriate next step in the diagnosis or treatment should be:
Lower extremity noninvasive studies for deep venous thrombosis
A venogram
A pulmonary arteriogram
Oxygen and observation
A 65 – year old man develops an Escherichia coli urinary tract infection. The organism is sensitive to all antibiotics tested, including ampicillin. The patient is treated for 10 to 14 days with amoxicillin, but the infection relapses within 3 days of cessation of therapy. The organism remains sensitive to all antibiotics. A second course of tetracycline is given for 7 more days, but again, relapse occurs. The most likely diagnosis is:
The organism was resistant to ampicillin and the sensitivity tests were in error
A prostatic focus of infection
An immune defect
Septicemia
A 65 – year – old woman presents with hoarseness, cough and weight loss. Findings of examination are remarkable only for a hoarse voice and slightly decreased breath sounds on the left. Her chest radiograph shows a left hilar mass and adenopathy in the aortico – pulmonary window on the left. Bronchoscopy reveals paralysis of the left true vocal cord and an endobronchial lesion in the left upper lobe bronchus. Further investigation, including computed tomography of the chest, upper abdomen, and brain, reveals no evidence of metastatic disease. Bronchial biopsy reveals small – cell carcinoma. The MOST APPROPRIATE treatment would be:
Surgical resection
Chemotherapy
Local irradiation
Combined surgery and radiation
Treatment proven to lower mortality rates inpatients with with acute Q wave myocardial infarction includes:
Aspirin
Digitalis
Diltiazem
Lidocaine
A previously well 16 – year – old boy develops a fever and sore throat. His sore thraot has become so severe that he feels he is going to choke, and he is having trouble breathing. His tonsils approximate in the midline and an exudate is seen. His peripheral white blood cell count is 6,000 per mm3 with 60% lymphocytes, 30% of which are atypical. Which of the following is the MOST APPRORIATE therapy?
Ampicillin
Cephalosporin
Corticosteroids
Incision and drainage
Drug(s) NOT useful for the long – term treatment of congestive heart failure is/are:
Hydralazine and isorsorbide dinitrate
Captopril
Milrinone
Enalopril
A35 – year – old woman presents with dyspnea on exertion, with insidious onset over several months. She has no prior history of dyspnea and takes only oral contraceptives. Her chest radiograph shows an enlarged cardiopericardial silhouette and enlargement of the hilar pulmonary vascular shadows, but no interstitial changes. An echocardiogram shows normal left atrial and ventricular size and function, but dilated right – sided chambers. Which of the following diagnoses should be considered?
Primary pulmonary hypertension
The CREST syndrome
Recurrent pulmonary emboli
Acute pulmonary embolism
A previously healthy 65 – year – old man has a history of multiple traumas, repeated surgeries, prolonged hospitalization, and major blood loss in 1938. He enters the hospital because of a progressive cough with little sputum production, but some shortness of breath. Roentgnography reveals bilateral interstitial infiltrates. His pulse oximeter demonstrates hypoxemia. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia
Chlamydia TWAR pneumonia
Q fever pneumonia
Adenovirus pneumonia
Which of the following factors does NOT predict an increased risk for recurrent febrile seizures?
Family history of partial – complex epilepsy
Short duration of fever with the initial seizure
Lower temperature with the initial seizure
Family history of febrile seizures
Complication associated with treatment with procainamide, a class type IA antiarrhythmic medication, include:
An increase in the serum digoxin level
QT prolongation and polymorphic ventricular tachycardia
Hypothyroidism
Bluish discoloration of the skin
Clinical descriptions:Painful lytic lesion of the femur in a patient with known squamous cell carcinoma of the lung : Treatment –
Chemotherapy
Surgical resection followed by radiation therapy
Local irradiation
Chemotherapy followed by radiation
A 7 – year – old child develops severe pharyngitis. On physical examination he is febrile was a temperature of 1030F, has purulent tonsillites and has anterior cervical adenopathy. Which of the following is the LEAST LIKELY causes of his condition?
Staphylococcus aureus
Group A beta – hemolytic streptococci
Adenovirus
Epstein Barr virus
A 40 – year – old man presents to you for a routine physical exam. He is healthy and has no significant complaints, but his family history includes polycystic kidney disease and a grandparent who died of hemorrhagic stroke at the age of 52. Ultrasound of the patient’s kidneys confirms the presence of=select one +polycystic kidney disease. Since central nervous system (CNS) problems can be associated with polycystic kidney disease your BEST course of action is to :
Reassure the patient that the risk of CNS problems is small and that screening tests for defects are not justified
Obtain a four vessel cerebral angiogram to rule out aneurysm
Obtain high – resolution computed tomography with contrast or magnetic resonance imaging scans of the patient’s head because of an expected 25% risk of a vascular anomaly
Obtain high – resolution computed tomography with contrast or magnetic resonance imaging scans of the patient’s head because of an expected 5% risk of an aneurysm
A 34 –year woman was participating in aerobic exercises when she experienced acute onset of shortness of breath and palpitations followed by hemoptysis. She was taken to the emergency department and a chest radiograph and showed interstitial edema. An echocardiogram was also obtained. The most likely diagnosis is:
Mitral valve prolapsed
Mitral stenosis
Acute pulmonary embolism
Atrial septal defect
All of the following are expected clinical findings associated with obstructive sleep apnea EXCEPT –
Anemia of chronic disease
Mental dullness
Daytime hypersomnolence
Loud and frequent snoring
A 16 – year – old female is evaluated because of fever and headache. Her 2 – year –0 old brother had a rashlike illness 3 weeks previously. The patient has a fever (380C) and a moderately stiff neck. Lumbar puncture is performed and the spinal fluid contains 8 white cells/mm3, with 70% lymphocytes. The glucose level is 70 mg%, with a concurrent blood glucose level of 90 mg%. Gram’s stain is negative. Peripheral white blood cell count is 5,000 cells/mm3. Spinal fluid samples are sent for cultures. Which of the following is the MOST APPROPRIATE therapy?
Observation/hospitalization/fluids
Send the patient home with narcotic analgesics
Intravenous gentamicin and ampicillin until cultures return
Computed tomography and repeat lumbar puncture in 2 days
A psychiatrist colleague asks you to evaluate his patient, a 32 – year – old woman who has a fever and an elevated leukocyte count. On examination, she is alert, frightened, diaphoretic, and exhibits “led pipe rigidity” throughout. What course of action would you suggest your colleague pursue with regard to this patient?
Discontinue all psychotropic mediations, admit her to the intensive care unit, and initiate treatment with a dopamine agent
Admit her to the hospital, initiate treatment with a broad – spetrum antibiotic, order blood, urine, and spinal fluid cultures, and observe until the culture results are back
Admit her to the hospital, initiate treatment with an anticholinegic agent, order blood, urine and spinal fluid cultures, and observed until the culture results are back
Admit her to the intensive care unit and taper the dosage of the psychotropic mediations
Management of unstable angina pectoris should include all of the following mediations EXCEPT :
Nitrates
Calcium antagonists
Heparin
Thrombolytic drugs
5 – mm induration on purified protein derivative (PPD) skin testing in a patient positive for the human immunodeficiency virus with a negative chest radiography –What is next step in management
Isoniazid therapy alone
Repeat PPD in 1 to 2 weeks
Observation
Isoniazid and rifampin therapy for 9 months
A 63 – year – old woman with congestive heart failure has developed spreading edema and pain in her right lower leg. The edema worsens and she becomes febrile. On physical examination, she has bilateral brawny edema from the ankle to the knee on both legs that is significantly worse on the right. There is severe erythema and warmth of the right leg. Her temperature is 390C; the peripheral white blood cell count is 17,000 cells/mm3. The MOST APPROPRIATE treatment for her cellulitis is –
IV antibiotics
Further testing for DVT
IV antibiotics and DVT testing
IV antibiotics heparin and sodium warfarin
A 36 – year – old man comes to you because of a 10 – year – history of daily headaches. The headaches are constant and nonpounding although occasionally he has a pounding headache accompained by nausea and vomiting. There is a family history of migraines. He has used actaminophen, barbiturates, and codeine combinations with varying success, but acetaminophen and nonsteroidal anti inflammatory drugs give no relief. He takes an analgesic every 4 hours while awake although he says this is ineffective. Of the following pharmacologic modalities, what is the MOST APPROPRIATE therapeutic approach for this patient?
Beta – blockers
Slowly discontinue analgesic
Calcium channel blockers
Prophylactic ergotamine
Which of the following treatments has NOT been proven effective in secondary prevention of acute myocardial infarction?
Beta – blockers
Antiplatelet agents
Calcium antagonists
Anticoagulants
A 54 – year – old man, a nonsmoker, complains of a nonproductive cough of 8 months duration. Findings on physical examination of the chest, chest radiographs, and spirometry are within the limits of normal. All of the following evaluations would be indicated EXCEPT –
An echocardiogram
Bronchoprovocation challenge
Barium esophagram
Radiographs of paranasal sinuses
A patient with a congenital abnormality of the aortic valve is about to undergo a dental procedure. Although she has a murmur, her condition has been stable enough to avoid valve replacement surgery. She has not had endocarditis, and has no known allergies. The MOST APPROPRIATE prophylaxis would include:
Co – trimoxazole
Cefotaxime
Gentamicin
Amoxicillin
The patient presents with difficulty walking. On neurologic exam, there is spasticity in both legs, decreased vibratory sensation, and ataxia. Visual acuity is decreased. Which of the following conditions is/are the MOST LIKELY cause of the patient’s symptoms? 1.Vitamin B12 deficiency 2.Friedreich ataxia 3.Human immunodeficiency virus infection 4.Cervical myelopathy from spinal stenosis
1 and 3
1,2 and 3
2 and 4
4 only
Thrombolysis in acute myocardial infarction is –
Most effective if administered within 12 to 18 hours after symptom onset
Equally effective whether streptokinase, tissue plasminogen activator, or anistreplase is used
Associated with a 5% risk of intracerebellar bleeding
All of the above
Which of the following immunizations should be routinely considered for adults over the age of 65 years?
Hepatitis B and influenza vaccines
Pneumococcal and influenza vaccines
Pneumococcal and hepatitis B vaccines
Hepatitis B and Haemophilus influenzae vaccines
Which of the following agents has NOT been found useful in the treatment of cluster headaches?
Beta – blockers
Calcium channel blockers
Lithium
Indomethacin
A 32 – year old man presents for a routine physical examination. On examination, there is a right ventricular impulse, a fixed split second heart sound best heard in the pulmonic area, and a low rumbling middliastolic murmur at the lower left sternal border. Examination and subsequent workup show that he has an atrial septal defect. In your discussion yo tell him:
The middiastolic rumble is due to high flow across the tricuspid valve
Surgery is not indicated because the atrial septal defect and shunt are likely to be small
The risk of complications later in lef is small
Life expectancy is not affected in patients with atrial sepal defect
Presence of serum M2 antimitochondrial antibody is a classic sign of
Primary biliary cirrhosis
Hemochromatosis
Wilson’s disease
Primary sclerosing cholangitis
Condition that Predisposes to development of hepatocellular carcinoma
Chronic hepatitis B
Chronic hepatitis C
Both a and b
Neither a or b
Solitary 1 – cm peripheral pulmonary nodule, Treatment –
Chemotherapy
Surgical resection
Surgical resection followed by radiation therapy
Local irradiation
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