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Quizzes > General Knowledge & Mixed > Miscellaneous

Security Forces CDC Practice Exam - Test Your Knowledge

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Difficulty: Moderate
2-5mins
Learning OutcomesCheat Sheet
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Use this Security Forces CDC practice exam to prep for 5‑level tasks, policies, and procedures you'll face on the upgrade test. Get instant scoring and short explanations to spot weak areas before the exam; when you're done, try the next 5‑level quiz .

What is the primary mission of the U.S. Air Force Security Forces?
To oversee base communications
To conduct nuclear weapons maintenance
To provide medical support to deployed units
To protect Air Force personnel and resources
The Security Forces provide base defense, law enforcement, and force protection to safeguard personnel and resources. Their mission is focused on protecting assets and ensuring readiness of Air Force installations. They are not responsible for medical, maintenance, or communications duties.
Which Air Force Instruction (AFI) governs the use of firearms by Security Forces members?
AFI 44-172, Medical Examinations and Standards
AFI 36-2201, Developing, Managing and Conducting Training
AFI 31-117, Arming and Use of Force by Air Force Personnel
AFI 31-204, US Air Force Traffic Safety Program
AFI 31-117 provides policies and procedures for the proper handling, qualification, and use of firearms by Air Force personnel. It outlines use of force guidelines and weapons training requirements. Other AFIs address different topics such as traffic safety and training management.
How many hours of weapons training does AFI 31-117 require Security Forces members to conduct monthly?
2 hours
4 hours
8 hours
6 hours
AFI 31-117 mandates a minimum of four hours of weapons training each month to ensure proficiency and readiness. This regular training includes qualification, remedial firing, and drills. Adequate monthly training reinforces safety and accuracy standards.
Which AF Form is used for the weapons register to track hand-to-hand weapons inventory and usage?
AF Form 623, Individual Training Record
AF Form 523, Weapons Register
AF Form 483, Certificate of Competency
AF Form 629, Base Entry/Exit Log
AF Form 523 is the standardized Weapons Register used to record inventory, issue details, and maintenance of hand-held weapons. Accurate completion of this form ensures accountability and serviceability. It is distinct from forms used for entry logs, qualifications, and training records.
What is the first level of the Use of Force Continuum?
Deadly force
Verbal commands
Empty-hand control
Officer presence
The Use of Force Continuum begins with officer presence, relying on the authority and position of Security Forces personnel to control a situation. If presence is insufficient, officers escalate to verbal commands, then empty-hand techniques, and ultimately deadly force as necessary. This graduated model promotes proportional responses.
Which threat is considered the most persistent insider risk to base security?
Improvised explosive devices
Insider threat
Cyber attacks
Active shooter incidents
Insider threats pose a persistent risk because they involve authorized personnel exploiting knowledge of systems and vulnerabilities. These individuals already have access privileges, making detection more difficult. While external threats like IEDs and shooters are serious, insider actions can bypass many security measures.
What is the initial responding element called when Security Forces react to an incident?
Security Reaction Team (SRT)
Base Defense Force
Minimum Response Element (MRE)
Quick Reaction Force (QRF)
The Minimum Response Element (MRE) is the first available Security Forces team dispatched to an incident. They’re trained to assess, contain, and request further support if needed. The QRF is a larger, more heavily armed unit that follows the MRE.
Which Force Protection Condition denotes an increased or heightened risk of terrorist activity against personnel or facilities?
FPCON Bravo
FPCON Alpha
FPCON Charlie
FPCON Delta
FPCON Bravo applies when there is an increased or more predictable threat of terrorist activity. Alpha is general and unpredictable, Charlie follows a credible threat or incident, and Delta is for immediate threat against a specific target. Each FPCON escalates protective measures.
What is the standard Quick Reaction Force (QRF) response time required by AFI guidance?
5 minutes
30 minutes
10 minutes
15 minutes
AFI 31-117 requires Quick Reaction Forces to be capable of responding within 10 minutes from alert notification. This rapid response window ensures timely reinforcement and incident containment. Longer delays could compromise security and mission readiness.
Which force protection barrier is primarily used to physically delay or deter intruders at a perimeter?
Guard towers
Concertina wire
Motion sensor
Closed-circuit television (CCTV)
Concertina wire is a physical barrier designed to delay, deter, and channel intruders. It complements sensors and observation posts by providing an immediate obstruction. CCTV and sensors detect movement; towers provide observation, but only wire impedes movement.
Under the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ), which article grants Security Forces the authority to apprehend military personnel?
Article 128
Article 92
Article 31
Article 7
UCMJ Article 7 authorizes military law enforcement to apprehend persons subject to the UCMJ when there is probable cause. Article 31 covers self-incrimination, 92 covers failure to obey order, and 128 defines assault. Security Forces rely on Article 7 for lawful apprehensions.
What does PPE stand for in Security Forces operations?
Physical protective equipment
Public protective ensemble
Personal protective equipment
Personnel protection equipment
PPE stands for Personal Protective Equipment, which includes items like ballistic helmets, body armor, and eye protection. These are essential for force protection and safety during security operations. The term is standardized across DoD and civilian safety regulations.
How often must entry control point personnel inspect their assigned weapons according to AFI 31-117?
Quarterly
Monthly
Daily
Weekly
AFI 31-117 requires daily weapon inspections by entry controllers to ensure serviceability and safety. A daily check includes function testing and basic maintenance. Less frequent inspections risk equipment failures during critical incidents.
Which barrier type allows controlled pedestrian access while restricting vehicle movement?
Jersey barrier
Concertina wire
Turnstile
Spike strip
Turnstiles permit one person at a time to pass, effectively controlling pedestrian access while vehicles cannot traverse them. Jersey barriers and spike strips are designed to stop vehicles, and concertina wire restricts both foot and vehicular traffic.
What is the maximum effective range of the M9 pistol?
200 meters
50 meters
25 meters
100 meters
The M9 service pistol has a maximum effective range of 50 meters under standard conditions. Beyond this, accuracy and terminal performance degrade significantly. This specification is listed in the pistol’s technical manual and qualification standards.
Security Forces squadrons typically fall under which wing-level group?
Mission Support Group
Medical Group
Logistics Group
Operations Group
Security Forces squadrons are part of the Mission Support Group, which provides essential base operations, security, and support services. The Operations Group manages flying units, Logistics Group handles maintenance and supply, and Medical Group oversees health services.
Which manual covers installation entry control procedures for Security Forces?
AFMAN 31-204
AFMAN 31-117
AFMAN 31-214
AFMAN 31-213
AFMAN 31-214 details entry control point operations, credentials, barrier systems, and access procedures. It complements AFI 31-117 by providing specific guidance on controlling base access. Other manuals address weapons use and broader security policies.
What is the maximum effective range of the M4 carbine?
500 meters
600 meters
400 meters
300 meters
The M4 carbine has a maximum effective range of approximately 500 meters for area targets. This range balances accuracy and terminal ballistics for infantry engagements. Shorter and longer ranges require adjustments or different weapons platforms.
Which sign may indicate the presence of an improvised explosive device (IED)?
Intact pavement with no debris
Authorized road signs
Disturbed earth around the roadside
Regular traffic patterns
Freshly disturbed earth, mounded soil, or new holes can signal buried IEDs. Observers must look for changes in the environment that deviate from normal maintenance. Other signs include wires or debris near suspect areas.
What distance should Security Forces vehicles maintain between each other to reduce vulnerability to the same explosive threat?
50 meters
100 meters
10 meters
25 meters
A standoff of at least 50 meters between vehicles reduces the risk of multiple units being disabled by a single explosive device. This spacing complicates enemy targeting and prevents chain-reaction blasts. The distance is a standard planning factor in mounted patrol operations.
Which component is essential for initiating the main charge in a standard IED?
Initiator or detonator
Power source
Casing
Switch mechanism
The initiator, often a detonator or blasting cap, triggers the main explosive charge when energized or actuated. Without it, the power source and switch cannot cause the main charge to detonate. Other components support but do not directly initiate the explosion.
Upon discovering a suspected IED, what is the initial action Security Forces should take?
Drive over and detonate it safely
Ignore and continue patrol
Approach quietly to inspect
Stop, mark the area, and establish a cordon
Marking the area and establishing a safety cordon prevents personnel from entering the hazard zone. This initial step ensures force protection and allows EOD specialists to arrive. Attempting to move or inspect the device risks detonation.
How often should the Visit Authorization List (VAL) be updated for a restricted area?
Monthly
Daily
Weekly
Quarterly
The VAL for restricted areas must be reviewed and updated at least quarterly to ensure only current personnel have access. Outdated lists can allow unauthorized entry or create accountability issues. Quarterly updates align with AF security policy.
What is the standard magazine capacity for the M4 carbine?
10 rounds
20 rounds
30 rounds
40 rounds
Standard issue magazines for the M4 carbine hold 30 rounds of 5.56×45mm NATO ammunition. This capacity balances firepower with weight and ergonomics. Specialty operations may use different magazine types, but 30-rounders are the default.
Which AFI outlines law enforcement standards and procedures for Security Forces?
AFI 31-206 Volume 1
AFI 31-117
AFI 31-213
AFI 31-240
AFI 31-206 Volume 1 establishes law enforcement authority, reporting, investigations, and standards of conduct for Security Forces. It complements AFI 31-117 by detailing legal and procedural protocols. The other AFIs cover weapons use, antiterrorism, and security programs.
Which Force Protection Condition corresponds to a terrorist incident occurring or credible intelligence indicating a specific threat?
FPCON Bravo
FPCON Alpha
FPCON Delta
FPCON Charlie
FPCON Charlie is declared when a terrorist incident has occurred or credible intelligence indicates a specific threat. It triggers stringent security measures short of lockdown. Delta is reserved for imminent or ongoing attacks.
Which visual indicator is most associated with a chemical agent release?
Black smoke
White smoke
Red haze
Yellowish-green cloud
Many chemical warfare agents, such as chlorine, appear as yellowish-green clouds when released. Recognizing color changes and unusual vapor patterns aids in prompt protective action. Other colors may indicate smoke or incendiary effects but not chemical agents.
What is the recommended inner perimeter distance when establishing a cordon-and-search operation?
25 meters
150 meters
50 meters
100 meters
A 50 meter inner perimeter allows Security Forces to control access, maintain observation, and react safely during cordon-and-search. It balances coverage with resource requirements. Larger perimeters may be used for higher threats.
Which system is commonly used to track and schedule Security Forces training records?
ATRRS
CATS (Consolidated Automated Training System)
JTRS
G081
The Consolidated Automated Training System (CATS) is the Air Force’s official training management tool for scheduling, tracking, and reporting Security Forces qualifications and courses. ATRRS is used by the Army and some AF schools. JTRS is a communications system.
What is the typical delay time for a standard flash-bang distraction device used by Security Forces?
3 seconds
5 seconds
7 seconds
1 second
Flash-bang distraction devices typically employ a pyrotechnic delay of about five seconds before detonation. This provides operators time to deploy and position themselves. Incorrect timing can compromise the element of surprise and operator safety.
Which AFI governs the U.S. Air Force Working Dog program?
AFI 31-124, Combat Tracker Dogs
AFI 31-122, K-9 Handler Training
AFI 31-121, Working Dog Program
AFI 31-123, Canine Explosive Detection
AFI 31-121 establishes policy, responsibilities, and procedures for the Air Force Working Dog Program, including selection, training, and deployment. It covers all aspects from acquisition to retirement. The other AFIs do not exist or focus on subtopics.
What is the minimum number of handlers required for the deployment of one Security Forces K-9 team?
3
1
2
4
Deployment of a K-9 team requires two handlers to ensure continuous control, accountability, and support for the working dog. One handler manages the dog while the other maintains security and communications. This ensures redundancy and safety in operations.
Which defensive principle focuses on slowing and weakening an enemy before they reach the main defensive line?
Mobile defense
Defense in depth
Forward defense
Area defense
Defense in depth layers obstacles, barriers, and engagement zones to delay and attrit attackers before they reach critical positions. It uses multiple defensive rings to reduce enemy momentum. This principle is key in base defense planning.
Which principle of the use of force requires that actions taken by Security Forces not exceed the threat posed?
Proportionality
Accountability
Legitimacy
Necessity
Proportionality mandates that the force applied is no greater than necessary to counter the threat. It ensures ethical compliance and minimizes collateral damage. It is a core component of the Use of Force Continuum.
Under what circumstance may Security Forces use deadly force to protect property?
To protect all items valued over $1,000
During routine traffic stops
To prevent unauthorized sabotage or destruction of nuclear weapons
To stop minor theft of government property
Deadly force to protect property is only authorized to prevent the destruction, loss, or theft of resources vital to national security, such as nuclear weapons. Use of deadly force for lesser property crimes is not permissible under AFI guidance.
What is the primary role of a Quick Reaction Force (QRF) element?
Providing immediate tactical support to incidents
Maintaining vehicle patrol schedules
Overseeing entry control logbooks
Conducting routine inspections
The QRF’s mission is to rapidly respond to emergent security incidents, provide reinforcement, and stabilize situations. They have enhanced firepower and protective gear compared to initial responders. Their speed and capability are critical in crisis response.
What type of patrol focuses on maintaining a visible presence to deter adversary actions?
Presence patrol
Reconnaissance patrol
Security zone patrol
Suspicion patrol
Presence patrols are conducted to project authority and deter unlawful behavior through visibility. They do not focus on gathering intelligence but rather on reassuring friendly forces and discouraging threats. This basic tactic supports preventive security measures.
What average movement rate should be used when planning foot patrol operations in moderately rough terrain?
8 km/h
2 km/h
6 km/h
4 km/h
In moderately rough terrain, planners use a 4 km/h movement rate for foot patrols to account for obstacles and elevation changes. This rate balances speed with safety and allows accurate timetable planning. It is a standard planning factor from tactical manuals.
Which frequency band does the SINCGARS radio system primarily operate in?
Super High Frequency (SHF)
High Frequency (HF)
UHF
VHF-FM
SINCGARS (Single Channel Ground and Airborne Radio System) operates in the VHF-FM band (30–88 MHz) to provide secure voice and data communications. Its frequency-hopping capability reduces jamming and interception risks. Other bands serve different communication systems.
When drafting a post order, which element should appear first?
Mission statement
Emergency procedures
Authority
Duties
Post orders begin by citing the authority under which the security post operates, such as applicable AFI, UCMJ articles, or wing directives. This establishes legal basis before detailing mission and duties. Without authority, subsequent instructions lack enforceability.
Which search pattern is most suitable for inspecting a long hallway or corridor?
Strip search
Spiral search
Grid search
Zone search
A strip search, where personnel move in a straight line down the length of a corridor, ensures thorough coverage of narrow, linear areas. Grid and spiral patterns are better suited for open or circular spaces. Zone searches focus on designated compartments.
Proper placement of a seismic sensor along a perimeter fence is typically how far apart?
3 feet
6 feet
10 feet
20 feet
Seismic fence sensors are often spaced about 3 feet apart to detect ground vibrations from personnel movement. Closer spacing increases detection fidelity and reduces blind spots. Spacing guidelines come from sensor manufacturer and force protection manuals.
How often are Security Forces required to qualify on their duty weapon according to AFI 31-117?
Annually
Quarterly
Semiannually
Monthly
AFI 31-117 requires duty weapon qualification at least twice a year (semiannually) to ensure ongoing proficiency. This standard includes both day and night qualifications as applicable. It supports readiness and safety standards for live-fire operations.
What malfunction is remedied by the 'slap, rack, and bang' immediate action drill on the M9 pistol?
Failure to feed
Double feed
Failure to chamber
Failure to eject (stovepipe)
The 'slap, rack, and bang' drill clears a stovepipe malfunction (failure to eject) by slapping the magazine base, racking the slide to eject the stuck casing, and chambering a new round. This immediate action method restores function quickly. Other malfunctions require different remedial actions.
Which timer component is commonly used in time-delay improvised explosive devices?
Tilt rod
Tripwire
Pressure plate
Digital timer
Digital timers are frequently used in IEDs to provide precise, adjustable delays before detonation. They allow attackers to set specific activation times. Mechanical or chemical timers are less common in modern devices.
Which form is used to document Force Protection Condition checks during installation inspections?
AF Form 483, Certificate of Competency
AF Form 500, Security Forces Activity Report
AF Form 414, Security Forces Installation Entry Control Check Sheet
AF Form 624, Individual Training Record
AF Form 414 is used to record FPCON compliance checks at entry control points and other security checkpoints. It documents inspections, deficiencies, and corrective actions. Proper use ensures standardization across installations.
How many steps are there in the official Air Force Operations Security (OPSEC) process?
Seven
Five
Six
Eight
The Air Force OPSEC process consists of five steps: identify critical information, analyze threats, analyze vulnerabilities, assess risks, and apply countermeasures. This structured method protects sensitive information. Other services may use similar but numerically different processes.
Which type of sensor is best suited for detecting subterranean movement along a perimeter?
Microwave sensor
Acoustic sensor
Seismic sensor
Infrared sensor
Seismic sensors detect ground vibrations caused by footsteps or digging beneath fences. They are specifically designed for subsurface movement detection. Acoustic and infrared sensors detect airborne sounds and heat signatures respectively.
Which factors are used to calculate the Threat Assessment Code (TAC) in the Air Force Antiterrorism Program?
Intent and capabilities
Intent and targeting
Intent, capabilities, and targeting
Capabilities and targeting
The TAC is determined by evaluating adversary intent, capabilities, and targeting indicators. Combining these factors yields a composite risk score to guide protective measures. Omitting any factor reduces the accuracy of threat assessments.
When constructing a field fortification, which material layer is primarily designed to provide ballistic protection?
Revetment wall
HESCO barrier
Earth berm
Concrete barrier
Earth berms offer significant ballistic protection by absorbing and dissipating kinetic energy from incoming rounds. They are cost-effective and easily constructed in the field. Reinforced concrete and HESCO barriers also provide protection but are heavier or require specialized installation.
In improvised explosive device operations, what is the primary function of a tripwire?
To shield the device from detection
To electronically signal remote detonation
To initiate the device by tensioning the fuze
To power the main charge
Tripwires act as mechanical triggers by applying tension to the fuze or switch when disturbed. This tension causes the initiator to function and detonate the charge. They are simple, reliable initiators commonly found on command-wire or booby-trap IEDs.
During a stress-fire qualification, what is the maximum time allowed to engage a target at 7 yards?
3 seconds
5 seconds
2 seconds
1 second
The stress-fire course requires engagement of a 7-yard target within 2 seconds to simulate real-world pressure. This time standard tests decision-making, draw, sight alignment, and trigger control under stress. It is stipulated in AFI 31-117 qualification standards.
In ground defense planning, what does the acronym RAM-C represent?
Report, Alert, Mobilize, Contain
Respond, Assess, Move, Control
Reinforce, Advance, Maintain, Cover
Reconnoiter, Attack, Maneuver, Consolidate
RAM-C stands for Reconnoiter, Attack, Maneuver, and Consolidate, outlining the phases of ground defense operations. Units first scout the enemy, then engage, reposition forces for tactical advantage, and secure gains. This framework supports structured defensive planning.
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Study Outcomes

  1. Evaluate CDC Knowledge Proficiency -

    Use the Security Forces CDC practice exam to measure your understanding of 5-level CDC topics and receive instant scoring feedback.

  2. Identify Strengths and Weaknesses -

    Pinpoint areas of mastery and knowledge gaps in your CDC material to focus your study efforts more effectively.

  3. Analyze CDC Test Questions and Answers -

    Review detailed explanations for each question to reinforce critical concepts and improve retention.

  4. Apply Key Security Forces Concepts -

    Translate theoretical knowledge into real-world scenarios by practicing with authentic Security Forces CDC practice test items.

  5. Develop Targeted Study Strategies -

    Create customized revision plans based on instant quiz results to optimize your preparation for the CDC exam.

  6. Boost Exam Readiness and Confidence -

    Simulate official test conditions with a timed 5-level CDC review quiz to build speed, accuracy, and self-assurance.

Cheat Sheet

  1. Use of Force Continuum -

    Learn the six force stages - presence, verbal commands, soft controls, hard controls, intermediate weapons, and deadly force - as outlined in AFI 31-117 and DODIN STIG and is frequently tested on the Security Forces CDC practice exam. For example, escalate from verbal commands to chemical sprays before resorting to firearms. Use the mnemonic "PVS-HID" (Presence, Verbal, Soft, Hard, Intermediate, Deadly) to keep the sequence in mind under stress.

  2. OODA Loop for Threat Response -

    Apply the Observe-Orient-Decide-Act (OODA) cycle from USAF doctrine to outpace adversaries in dynamic scenarios, a skill often evaluated on your Air Force CDC practice quiz. Continuously re-observe evolving threats and reorient based on new intel per Joint Publication 3-0. Remember "OOD-A" to maintain speed and adaptability during critical engagements.

  3. M4/M9 Weapons Safety & Qualification -

    Master the four weapon safety rules - treat every weapon as loaded, never point at non-targets, keep your finger off the trigger, and identify your target and beyond - per AFI 36-2226 and covered heavily in Security Forces CDC practice test materials. During qualification, achieve at least a marksman score by hitting 23 of 40 rounds at 300 yards on the M4. Use the "4T" mnemonic: Treat, Target, Trigger discipline, Terrain awareness.

  4. Entry Control Point (ECP) Procedures -

    Enforce AFI 31-101 standards by verifying credentials, vehicle registration, and purpose of entry at all ECPs, a section commonly found in CDC test questions and answers. Employ the "C-R-E-W" mnemonic - Credentials, Registration, Expiration, Who - to efficiently validate individuals and vehicles. Keep meticulous logs in the Entry Control Register to support accountability and investigations.

  5. FPCON Levels & Anti-Terrorism Measures -

    Identify Force Protection Conditions from Normal through Delta as defined in AFI 31-133 to tailor security postures based on threat levels, a core topic on the 5-level CDC review quiz. For example, under FPCON Bravo implement random anti-terrorism measures (RAM) like additional ID checks. Memorize "NABCD" (Normal, Alpha, Bravo, Charlie, Delta) to quickly adjust defenses.

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