Micropara
Microbiology Knowledge Quiz
Test your knowledge on various microbiological concepts and infections with this comprehensive quiz. From common pathogens to specific diseases, challenge yourself and see how much you really know!
Quiz Features:
- 98 questions covering a wide range of topics
- Multiple choice format to make answering easy
- Score tracking for self-assessment
Otitis media is an inflammation or infection of the:
A. ear
B. eye
c. brain
D. Urinary bladder
Keratitis is an inflammation or infection of the:
A. conjunctiva
B. cornea
C. kidney
D. skin
Which of the following is/are the most common cause of pharyngitis?
A. Escherichia coli
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Streptococcus pyogenes
D. viruses
Which of the following is the most common cause of tooth decay?
A. S. aureus
B. Streptococcus agalactiae
c. Streptococcus mutans
d. S. pyogenes
An infection of the urinary bladder is known as:
A. cystitis.
b. pyelonephritis.
c. ureteritis.
D. urethritis
The most common cause of cystitis is:
A. Candida albicans
B. E. coli
Ac. Staphylococcus epidermidis
d. Staphylococcus saprophyticus
The most common cause of urethritis is:
A. Chlamydia trachomatis.
b. E. coli.
c. Mycoplasma pneumoniae.
d. S. aureus.
Which of the following terms means swollen lymph glands?
A. lymphadenitis
B. lymphadenopathy
C. lymphangitis
D. lymphitis
Inflammation or infection of the brain is called:
A. encephalitis.
b. meningitis
C. myelitis.
d. Otitis externa.
Which of the following is not one of the three most common causes of bacterial meningitis?
a. E. coli
b. Haemophilus influenzae
c. Neisseria meningitidis
D. Streptococcus pneumoniae
Which of the following is the cause of smallpox?
A. Vaccinia virus
B. Varicella virus
C. Variola virus
d. None of the preceding choices
Which of the following are considered to be oncogenic?
A. Epstein-Barr virus and HPVs
B. HIV and Ebola virus
C. Rubella and rubeola viruses
D. Variola and varicella viruses
Laboratory diagnosis of HIV infection is usually made by which of the following?
A. Electron microscopy
B. Growth of HIV in cell culture
C. Growth of HIV in embryonated chicken eggs
D. Immunodiagnostic procedures for the detection of antigen and antibodies
Which of the following is also known as infectious hepatitis?
A. HAV
B. HBV
C. HCV
D. HDV
Mosquitoes serve as vectors in all of the following viral diseases, except:
A. Dengue fever.
b. hepatitis.
C. West Nile virus disease.
d. Yellow fever.
Which of the following viruses is/are not transmitted sexually?
A. hantavirus
b. HSVs
C. HIV
D. papillomaviruses
Which of the following is a type of herpes virus?
A. Epstein-Barr virus
B. Measles virus
C. Mumps virus
D. Rabies virus
Which of the following viral diseases has been acquired in the United States by handling pet prairie dogs?
A. chickenpox
B. hantavirus
c. monkeypox
D. smallpox
The disease known as severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) is caused by a type of:
A. coronavirus.
b. Herpes virus.
C. papillomavirus.
D. picornavirus.
The most common STD in the United States is caused by:
A. Candida albicans.
B. Chlamydia trachomatis
. c. Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
d. Trichomonas vaginalis
_______________ is the most common cause of pneumonia in the world.
a. Chlamydophila pneumoniae
B. Legionella pneumophila
C. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
D. Streptococcus pneumoniae
Gas gangrene is always caused by:
A. Bacillus anthracis.
B. Clostridium spp.
C. Staphylococcus aureus.
d. Streptococcus pyogenes.
The bacterial species most frequently associated with necrotizing fasciitis is:
A. Francisella tularensis.
b. S. aureus.
C. S. pneumoniae.
D. S. pyogenes
Which of the following diseases may be caused by C. trachomatis?
A. Inclusion conjunctivitis
B. Nongonococcal urethritis (NGU)
C. trachoma
D. All of the above
Which of the following organisms is the most common cause of urethritis?
A. C. albicans
B. C. trachomatis
C. N. gonorrhoeae
D. T. vaginalis
Which of the following organisms is the most common cause of cystitis?
A. C. trachomatis
b. E. coli
C. N. gonorrhoeae
D. T. vaginalis
Which of the following is the most common arthropod-borne disease in the United States?
A. Lyme disease
B. plague
c. Rocky Mountain spotted fever
D. tularemia
Which of the following diseases is not caused by a spirochete?
A. Lyme disease
B. plague
C. Relapsing fever
D. syphilis
Which of the following associations is incorrect?
a. Lyme disease . . . tick
B. plague . . . Rat flea
c. Rocky Mountain spotted fever . . . tick
D. Typhoid fever . . . mosquito
Which of the following is a DNA virus
A. HAV
B. HBC
C. HCV
D. HDV
Which of the following virulence factors enable(s) bacteria to attach to tissues?
A. capsules
B. endotoxin
C. flagella
D. pili
Neurotoxins are produced by:
A. Clostridium botulinum and Clostridium tetani.
B. Clostridium difficile and Clostridium perfringens.
C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa and Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
D. Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes
Which of the following pathogens produce enterotoxins?
A. Bacillus cereus and certain serotypes of Escherichia coli
B. C. Difficile and and Shigella spp
C. Perfringens c. Salmonella spp. and Shigella spp.
D. All of the above
A bloodstream infection with __________ could result in the release of endotoxin into the bloodstream.
A. C. Difficile or C. perfringens
B. Neisseria gonorrhoeae or E. coli
C. S. Aureus or M. tuberculosis
D. S. Aureus or S. pyogenes
Communicable diseases are most easily transmitted during the:
A. Incubation period.
b. Period of convalescence.
C. Period of illness.
D. Prodromal period
Enterotoxins affect cells in the:
a. Central nervous system.
B. Gastrointestinal tract.
C. Genitourinary tract.
D. Respiratory tract.
Which of the following bacteria is least likely to be the cause of septic shock?
a. E. coli
B. Haemophilus influenzae
C. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
D. Neisseria meningitidis
Which of the following produces both a cytotoxin and an enterotoxin?
a. C. botulinum
B. C. difficile
C. C. tetani
D. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
Which of the following virulence factors enable(s) bacteria to avoid phagocytosis by white blood cells?
A. capsule
B. Cell membrane
C. Cell wall
D. pili
Which of the following can cause toxic shock syndrome?
A. C. Difficile and C. perfringens
B. M. Pneumoniae and M. tuberculosis
C. N. Gonorrhoeae and E. coli
D. S. Aureus and S. pyogenes
Host defense mechanisms—ways in which the body protects itself from pathogens—can be thought of as an army consisting of how many lines of defense?
A. two
B. three
C. four
D. five
Which of the following is not part of the body’s first line of defense?
A. fever
b. Intact skin
c. mucus
d. pH of the stomach contents
Each of the following is considered a part of the body’s second line of defense except:
A. fever.
b. inflammation.
c. interferons.
D. lysozyme.
Which of the following is not a consequence of activation of the complement system?
A. Attraction and activation of leukocytes
b. Increased phagocytosis by phagocytic cells (opsonization)
c. Lysis of bacteria and other foreign cells
D. Repair of damaged tissue
Each of the following is a primary purpose of the inflammatory response except:
A. To localize the infection.
B. To neutralize any toxins being produced at the site.
C. To prevent the spread of microbial invaders.
D. To stimulate the production of opsonins
Which of the following cells is a granulocyte?
A. eosinophil
B. lymphocyte
C. macrophage
D. monocyte
All the following would be considered an aspect of microbial antagonism except:
A. Competition for nutrients.
B. Competition for space.
c. Production of bacteriocins.
D. Production of lysozyme
Which of the following function as opsonins?
A. antibodies
B. antigens
c. Complement fragments
D. Both a and c
Which of the following statements about interferons is false?
A. Interferons are virus-specific.
b. Interferons have been used to treat hepatitis C and certain types of cancer.
C. Interferons produced by a virus-infected cell will not save that cell from destruction.
D. Interferons produced by virus-infected rabbit cells cannot be used to treat viral diseases in humans
Which of the following is not one of the four cardinal signs or symptoms of inflammation?
A. edema
B. heat
C. Loss of function
D. redness
Of the following, which is the least likely to be involved in CMI?
a. antibodies
B. cytokines
C. macrophages
D. T cells
Antibodies are secreted by:
A. basophils.
B. macrophages.
C. Plasma cells.
D. T cells.
. Humoral immunity involves all the following except:
a. antibodies.
b. antigens.
C. NK cells.
d. Plasma cells.
Immunity that develops as a result of an actual infection is called:
A. Artificial active acquired immunity.
B. Artificial passive acquired immunity.
c. Natural active acquired immunity.
D. Natural passive acquired immunity
Artificial passive acquired immunity would result from:
A. Having the measles.
B. Ingesting colostrum.
C. Receiving a gamma globulin injection.
D. Receiving a vaccine
The vaccines that are used to protect people from diphtheria and tetanus are:
A. antitoxins.
b. Attenuated vaccines.
C. Inactivated vaccines.
D. toxoids.
Natural passive acquired immunity would result from:
A. Having the measles.
B. Ingesting colostrum.
C. Receiving a gamma globulin injection.
D. Receiving a vaccine
Which of the following statements about IgM is false?
A. IgM contains a J chain.
B. IgM has a total of 10 antigen-binding sites.
C. IgM is a pentamer.
D. IgM is a long-lived molecule
Which of the following could be an effect of type III hypersensitivity?
A. glomerulonephritis
B. Rheumatoid arthritis
C. SLE
D. All of the above
Most likely, immunology got its start in 1890 when these scientists discovered antibodies while developing a diphtheria antitoxin.
a. Edward Jenner and Louis Pasteur
B. Elie Metchnikoff and Robert Koch
C. Emil Behring and Kitasato Shibasaburo
D. Jonas Salk and Albert Sabin
Which of the following diseases is caused by an encapsulated yeast?
A. Coccidioidomycosis
B. Cryptococcosis
C. Histoplasmosis
D. Pneumocystis pneumonia
Which of the following diseases is not caused by a dimorphic fungus?
a. Coccidioidomycosis
B. Cryptococcosis
c. Histoplasmosis
D. Sporotrichosis
Which of the following diseases is a synonym for ringworm infection of the nails?
a. Tinea barbae
B. Tinea cruris
c. Tinea nigra
D. Tinea unguium
Which of the following is the most common systemic fungal disease in the United States?
A. Cryptococcosis
b. Coccidioidomycosis
C. Histoplasmosis
D. Pneumocystis pneumonia
One should associate the India ink preparation with diagnosis of which of the following?
A. Cryptococcal meningitis
b. thrush
C. Tinea pedis
D. Yeast vaginitis
Bread moulds are most commonly associated with which of the following diseases?
a. thrush
B. Tinea versicolor
C. vaginitis
d. zygomycosis
Which of the following is the fungus most often isolated from human clinical specimens?
a. Candida albicans
b. C. neoformans
C. Histoplasma capsulatum
D. Pneumocystis jiroveci
Which of the following methods is the quickest and most common way to diagnose yeast vaginitis?
A. culture
B. India ink preparation
C. KOH preparation
D. Saline wet mount
In the United States, C. Albicans causes approximately __________ of the cases of vaginitis.
A. 10%
b. 25%
C. 33%
D. 50%
Tinea cruris is a ringworm infection of which of these body sites?
a. feet
B. Groin area
C. nails
D. Palms of the hands
Humans develop malaria after the injection of Plasmodium __________ into the bloodstream by an infected female Anopheles mosquito when she takes a blood meal.
A. Male and female gametocytes
B. schizonts
C. sporozoites
D. trophozoites
These Plasmodium life cycle stages must be ingested by a female Anopheles mosquito for the Plasmodium life cycle to continue in the mosquito.
a. Male and female gametocytes
B. schizonts
C. sporozoites
D. trophozoites
Which of the following protozoal diseases is not transmitted via an arthropod vector?
A. African trypanosomiasis
B. American trypanosomiasis
c. babesiosis
D. giardiasis
Which of the following protozoal diseases is least likely to be transmitted via blood transfusion?
A. American trypanosomiasis
B. babesiosis
c. malaria
d. trichomoniasis
Which of the following protozoal diseases is least likely to be transmitted via an infected food handler who fails to wash his or her hands after using the bathroom?
a. amebiasis
B. cryptosporidiosis
C. giardiasis
D. toxoplasmosis
You are visiting a friend whose parents raise pigs. Which of the following diseases are you most likely to acquire by drinking well water at their farm?
A. amebiasis
B. balantidiasis
c. cryptosporidiosis
D. giardiasis
You are working on a cattle ranch. Which of the following diseases are you most apt to acquire as you perform your duties at the ranch?
a. amebiasis
B. balantidiasis
C. cryptosporidiosis
D. giardiasis
Which of the following protozoal diseases are you most likely to acquire by eating a rare hamburger?
a. amebiasis
B. balantidiasis
C. giardiasis
D. toxoplasmosis
Which of the following associations is incorrect?
A. African trypanosomiasis . . . Tsetse fly
b. amebiasis . . . Fecally contaminated water
c. Chagas’ disease . . . mosquito
D. toxoplasmosis . . . cats
Which of the following is an example of an infectious disease that is caused by a facultative parasite?
A. African trypanosomiasis
b. giardiasis
C. malaria
D. PAM
Which of the following skin lesions is commonly observed in checkenpox?
A. papule
B. furuncle
C. pustule
D. folliculitis
This site of the upper respiratory tract is commonly infected by streptococcus pyogenes
A. pharynx
B. bronchi
C. trachea
D. larynx
This is the inflammation of the mouth of the trachea or "windpipe"
A. bronchitis
B. epiglottitis
C. pharyngitis
D. pneumonia
This infection is defined as the inflammation of the membranes that surround the brain and spinal cord.
A. myelitis
B. meningoencephalitis
C. encephalitis
D. meningitis
Which of the following infection is considered as the most common type of urinary tract infection?
A. nephritis
B. cystitis
C. ureteristis
D. prostitis
This is the defined as the inflammation of inner layer of the uterine wall of female patients.
A. vaginitis
B. endometritis
C. epididymitis
D. cervicitis
Streptococcus mutans commonly infects which of the following anatomic site:
A.ears
B. Genitourinary tract
C. Oral cavity
D. eyes
This site of the upper respiratory tract is commonly infected by haemophilus influenzae type b.
A. epiglottis
B. larynx
C. Alveolar sacs
D. bronchi
Sty is an infection commonly found in ____________
A. skin
B. Central nervous system
C. Respiratory tract
D. Gastrointestinal tract
Cold sores are commonly caused by ____________
A. adenovirus
B. Varicella zoster virus
C. Herpes simplex virus
D. Human immunodeficiency virus
Which of the following hepatitis viruses needs a co-infection with hepatitis B virus?
A. Hepatitis A virus
B. Hepatitis C virus
C. Hepatitis D virus
D. Hepatitis E virus
Which of the following hepatitis viruses is transmitted through fecal-oral-route?
A. Hepatitis A virus
B. Hepatitis C virus
C. Hepatitis E virus
D. Hepatitis D virus
Which of the following modes of transmission is commonly associated with poliomyelitis?
A. Through an arthropod vector
B. Ingestion of contaminated food
C. Inhalation of aerosol droplets
D. Direct contact with infected sites
This viral infection can be transmitted through kissing or any direct contact with saliva
A. Infectious mononucleosis
B. St. Louis encephalitis
C. type E hepatitis
D. monkeypox
Mumps is a viral infection of ______
A. Central nervous system
B. Oral region
C. Circulatory system
D. skin
AIDS is a viral infection of _____
A. Oral region
B. Circulatory system
C. Urinary system
D. Central nervous system
Presence of koplik's spots is an early indicator of which infection:
A. mumps
B. Cold sore
C. measles
D. chickenpox
Which of the following sites is not commonly infected by rhinovirus?
A. Respiratory tract
B. Genital tract
C. eyes
D. Urinary tract
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