Immunology
Immunology Challenge: Test Your Knowledge!
Welcome to the Immunology Quiz! This engaging and informative quiz is designed to assess your understanding of immunological concepts and their applications in health and disease.
Whether you're a student, educator, or simply interested in immunology, this quiz will help you:
- Test your knowledge of immune responses
- Explore vital topics like HIV transmission and vaccination
- Enhance your understanding of critical immunological terms and phenomena
Which of the following answers is true? Anti-viral immune response
Interferon protects neighboring cells
Cytotoxic T-cell kills via MHC-peptide recognition
Natural killer cell kills via MHC-loss recognition
Antibody blocks entry to cells
All answers are correct
What is the cytotoxic T-cells produce?
Class II MHCs
Self proteins
Antibodies, which make holes in cell membranes of infected cells
Perforin, which makes holes in cell membrane of infected cells
All answers are correct
Foreign substances that elicit an immune response are termed
Aliens
Antigens
Antibodies
Viruses
Bacteria
Macrophage secrete…………………..which then activates……………………
Antibodies; helper T cells
Interleukin1; cytotoxic T cells
Interleukin1; helper T cells
Interleukin2; cytotoxic T cells
Interleukin2; helper T cells
Macrophage activation to kill intracellular pathogens is primarily mediated by :
IL-2
IFN Gama
IL-4
GM-CSF
IL-12
Cytotoxic T cells which kill their targets
Are mostly CD4+
Act via perforin and granzyme B
Recognize glycolipids in the context of MHC class I molecules
Also secrete IL-4 and IL-5
All answers are correct
The antibody class found at highest concentration in serum is :
IgE
IgM
IgD
IgG
IgA
Natural killer cells recognize and kill
Normal host cells
Cells with increased expression of MHC-I molecules
Cells with decreased expression of MHC-I molecules
Intracellular pathogens
Via MHC-peptide
Which of the following are phagocytic cells derived from monocytes
Neutrophils
Mast cells
Natural killer cells
Macrophage
Eosinophils
Th1-type cytokines tend to produce……………….responses responsible for killing…………………. Parasites and for perpetuating autoimmune responses.
The pro-inflammatory; extracellular
The anti-inflammatory; extracellular
The pro-inflammatory; intracellular
The anti-inflammatory; intracellular
Interleukins; intracellular
Untreated HIV infected infants will rapidly develop to AIDS, one of these is wrong :
Symptoms start early in infancy
Failure to thrive, chronic diarrhea, oral thrush
Severe pneumonia (pneumocystis/CMC)
Lymphadenopathy, Hepatosplenomegaly, Encephalopathy
Death in 9-10 years, if no ART
Which one is wrong concerning to Mother-to-child HIV1 Transmission (MTCT)?
In utero: 5-10%
Intrapartum: 10-20%
Intrapartum: 15-25%
Breast milk: 10-20%
All answer are correct
Which out of the following is a preferred mode of transmission of HIV infection from mother to child?
During pregnancy through placenta
During delivery through mixing of blood
Infant contact with amniotic fluid, cervicovaginal secretions
Through breast milk during lactation
All answers are correct
What is the risk factor of Mother-to-child HIV transmission postpartum?
Breast feeding
High maternal viral load
Colostrum, mastitis, nipple lesions and breast abscess
Prolonged breast feeding
All answers are correct
The principles preventions of Mother-to-child HIV transmission are described below, one is wrong :
Universal prenatal HIV screening
Maximal reduction of maternal viral load (VL) by ART below limit of detection throughout pregnancy
Normal delivery
Infant ARV post-exposure prophylaxis
Neonatal replacement feeding (No breastfeeding)
All of the following except one is not in a group of Non Nucleotide Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitors (NNRTI) :
Efavirenz (EFV)
Nevirapine (NVP)
Delavirdine (DLV)
Etravirine (ETR)
Maraviroc (MRC)
All of the following except one is the intergrase inhibitor :
Raltegravir
Maraviroc
Enfuvirtide
Lamivudine
Ritonavir
Which drug is given to prevent HIV transmission from mother to child?
Nevirapine
Lamivudine
Stavudine
Abacavir
Enfuvirtide
All of the following except one is CD4 cells :
Monocytes
T-helper cells
T-Cytotoxic cells
Macrophages
Natural killers
The specific binding of HIV to the CD4 surface molecules of the host cell membrane is brought about by :
Gp 120
Gp 41
P32
P17
P55
Which vaccine is given to the child at the age of 1?
Polio
Hepatitis B
MMR
Varicella
JEV
All of the following is an example of a killed vaccine except :
DTaP
Haemophilus
Polio
JEV
Hep B
All of the following except which one is not a live vaccine for encephalitis?
JEV
Measles
Rubella
Pneumonia
All answer are correct
Which one does not cause an infection of the measles?
Microcephaly
Periventricular calcification
Cataract
Glaucoma
Microcephaly, periventricular calcification, and cataract
Which of the following transmits Japanese encephalitis to dead-end hosts?
Swine (pigs)
Contact in rice fields
Ducks
Mosquitos
Other people
Which of the following describes the safety of a live attenuated JE chimeric vaccine?
Fever in only 5% of vaccines
Low level viraemia in only 5/300 vaccines asymptomatic
No replication after feeding vaccine virus to culex
Humans are therefore “dead-end” of vaccine infection
All answers are correct
Which could be a risk from MMR vaccines?
Soreness where the shot injection was given
Fever
Mild rash
Swollen neck gland
All answers are correct
When should an infant be given a measles vaccination?
Over 12 months of age
Under 12 months of age
Between 12-18 months of age
Over 18 months of age
Over 6 months of age
According to its epidemiology which group is at risk for Rubella?
Vaccinated young women
Infants under the age of 1
Non-vaccinated children
Vaccinated children
Non-vaccinated young women
All relate to the aims of a rubella vaccination except :
Late vaccination for young women during postpartum
An attempt to eradicate the virus's circulation for boys
Early vaccination to prevent embryopathy
Vaccination for young women during consultation
Decrease of virus circulation for young men
Which of the following is the vector for Dengue fever?
Lutzomyia verrucarum
Phlebotomus papatasii
Xenopsylla cheopis
Aedes aegypti
Culex mosquito
Types of dengue serotypes are?
2
4
5
6
10
Dengue Hemorrhagic fever is caused by
Type 1 dengue virus
Reinfection with the same serotype of dengue virus
Reinfection with a different serotype of dengue virus
Infection in an immunocompromised host
An illness is caused by a Alphavirus
How many times should get dengue vaccine?
1 times
2 times
3 times
4 times
5 times
Dengue shock syndrome is characterized by the following except :
Hepatomegaly
Pleural effusion
Thrombocytopenia
Decreased haemoglobin
Signs of circulation failure
Most sensitive diagnostic test for dengue is?
Complement fixation test
IgM ELISA
Electron microscopy
Neutralization test
Tissue culture
In order to confirm the diagnosis of Dengue fever which of the following serological findings would be found?
IgM after a slow initial rise will persist for life
After a primary infection IgG persists for life
IgG is found in 80% of patients by the fifth day
A fourfold rise of IgG titre is presumptive evidence of infection
IgM after a fast initial rise will persist for life
Which of the following concerning management of dengue fever is NOT true?
Monitoring of hematocrit and platelet count is crucial
No specific antivirals is available for treatment of dengue fever
Hospitalization may not be necessary for patients without warning signs of severe dengue infection
Thick and thin smear of peripheral blood is the main diagnostic tool for dengue fever infection
If the clinical parameters are worsening and hematocrit is rising, increase the rate of infusion
Dengue vaccine is :
Live attenuated vaccine
Inactivated/killed vaccine
Tosoid vaccine
Subunit vaccine
Conjugate vaccine
Features of classic dengue fever includes all except :
Case fatality rate is low
Self-limiting disease
Also known as break bone fever
Tourniquet test is positive
Flu-like febrile illness with marked myalgia and joint pains
Group of proteins that promote inflammation, phagocytosis, and lysis
Complement
Antigen
Interferon
Plasma cell
B cell
The two cell types that promote inflammation are :
Eosinophils and basophils
Eosinophils and mast cells
Basophils and eosinophils
Basophils and mast cells
Neutrophils and eosinophils
Molecule that stimulates specific resistance
Plasma cell
Platelet
Antibody
Antigen
Complement
Divides to form plasma cell and memory cell
T cell
Complement
Interferon
B cell
Mastocyte
Site of lymphocyte processing and maturation
Spleen
Chyle
Thymus
Lymph node
Liver
The type of immunity in which the response to a second exposure to an antigen in faster and more effective than the response to the first exposure is
Specific immunity
Non specific immunity
Active artificial immunity
Non specific immunity and active artificial immunity
Non artificial immunity
Lyses virus infected cell, tumor cells, and transplanted cells
Interferon
Antigen
B cell
Cytotoxic T cell
Interferon and antigen
Area of rapidly dividing lymphocyte
Lymph node
Chyle
Lymph vessel
Lymph capillary
Germinal center
Antisera produce this kind of immunity
Active artificial immunity
Active natural immunity
Passive natural immunity
Passive artificial immunity
Active artificial and active natural immunity
The inflammatory response cause by – Except :
Vasodilation
Attack phagocyte
Increase vascular permeability
Histamine and prostaglandins released
Vasoconstriction
Which bacterias can be opsonized IgG Antibodies?
H. influenzae(Hib), Pneumococi, Meningococi
H. influenzae(Hib), Staphylococi, Pneumococi
H. influenzae(Hib), BK, Pneumococi
Pneumococi, Staphylococi , Meningococi
Pseudomonase, Staphylococi , Meningococi
Which of these following is the peak of H. influenza (Hib) meningitis?
7-12 months
12-24 months
3-4 years
>5 years
<5 years
Which of these following is the sequelae of H. influenza (Hib) meningitis?
No sequelae
50% auditif disorder, Central Nervous System (CNS) problem
70% auditif disorder, Central Nervous System (CNS) problem
30% auditif disorder, Central Nervous System (CNS) problem
>10% Mortality
Which of these following is the peak of epiglottitis attacked by H. influenzae(Hib)?
7-12 months
2-7 months
3-4 years
5-6 years
>6 years
Which of these following is the efficacy of H. influenza (Hib) meningitis vaccine after primary vaccination and booster?
100%
95%
90%
80%
50%
Which of these following is the most incidence of Pneumococi meningitis?
<5 year and sequelae 25-35%
<2 year and sequelae 25-35%
<1 year and sequelae 50%
7-12 months and sequelae 30%
3-4 years and sequelae 30%
Which of these following is the efficacy in healthy individuals of Pneumococcal conjugated vaccination after primary vaccination and booster PCV7(Pneumococcal conjugated vaccination)?
Menigitis 95% and Pneumonias 70%
Menigitis 90% and Pneumonias 70%
Menigitis 70% and Pneumonias 95%
Menigitis 90% and Pneumonias 90%
Menigitis 95% and Pneumonias 90%
Which of these following is the efficacy in healthy children of meningococcal type C Conjugated vaccination?
98%
95%
90%
80%
70%
Meningococcal type C conjugated vaccination :
Protect only against meningococci type C (not type B)
Protect against meningococci type C and B, till now no increase of meningococci type B
Increase coloniisation of vaccination
Only for special risk group
Severe sequelae 50%
Which of these following is the peak of meningococcal meningitis?
1-4 years and 15-19 years
1-4 years
3-4 years
15-19 years
>15 years
An important role in the protective immune response against tuberculosis is :
Cytokine interferon gamma (IFN gamma)
Tumors necrosis factor alpha(TNF alpha)
Interleukines 2
Intrleukines 12
All answer are correct
Primary TB infected in :
Lung
Stomach
Skin
Ear
Spleen
. Severse form of extra pulmonary TB in children :
Meningitis
Pott disease
Lymph node TB
Miliary TB
All answers are correct
Evolution of stage 2 in TB infected :
Inactive TB, Latentcy TB, Active TB
Inactive TB
Latent TB
Active TB
Inactive TB, Active TB
In Immune resconstitution inflammatory syndrome(IRIS) happen :
With any ART initiation, especially in PLHIV (people living with HIV) presenting with very low CD4 count
With any ART latentcy
Very high CD4 count
With any ART latentcy, especially in PLHIV presenting with very high CD4
With any ART latentcy, especially in PLHIV presenting with very low CD4
Serum cytokine concentration in immune reconstitution inflammatory(IRIS) in TB patient is :
IFN(interferon)gamma increase
IFN gamma unchanged
IFN gamma decrease
IFN gamma unchanged and decrease
All answer are correct
Serum cytokine concentration in immune reconstitution inflammatory(IRIS) in TB patient :
TNF(tumor necrosis factor) increase
TNF unchanged
TNF decrease
TNF unchanged and decrease
All answers are correct
The main cause of TB :
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Bacillus
Streptococcus pyogen
Lactobacillus Reuter
Actinobacteria
Primary tuberculosis mean :
Individuals who have not been previously exposed to the organism
Previously exposed to organism
Seen in adult
Second complex is characteristic
Seen in adult and second complex
In 2 to 4 weeks after TB infected two host response develop:
Tissue damaging response and macrophage activating response
Macrophage inactivating
Tissue damaging in response and Macrophage Inactivating
B cell activating
All answer are correct
BCG vaccination is administered to children
Intradermically
Subcutaneous
Intramuscularly
Orally
Intravenously
BCG vaccine is generally indicated in :
Immuno-compromised person
HIV positive people
Asplenia
Those with negative Mantoux test who work with high risk people
Patient with immunosuppressive therapy
After BCG vaccination in the blood sample, the quantity of Cytokine interferon ( IFN ) gamma is :
Increased
Decreased
Unchanged
Undetectable
Increased then suddenly decreased
How many biomarkers that were measured in blood assay after BCG vaccination :
20
18
16
14
12
BCG vaccination is :
Live Attenuated vaccine
Inactivated/kill vaccine
Toxoid (inactivated toxin) vaccine
Subunit vaccine
Conjugate vaccine
BCG immunotherapy can be used in :
Melanoma cancer
Colon cancer
Breast cancer
Bone cancer
Stomach cancer
Which one is BCG-specific CD4 T-cell response in whole blood?
Interferon gamma (IFN gamma)
Tumor necrosis factor alpha (TNF alpha)
Interleukins 2 (IL-2)
Interleukins 17 (IL-17)
All answers are correct
It is preferable to do prior Mantoux test if BCG is given :
As soon as after birth
After 15days of life
After 1 month of life
After 2 month of life
After 6 month of life
After systemic vaccination, BCG microorganisms were found in all these organs except :
Spleen
Liver
Lung
Mesenteric lymph node
Blood cell
The serious and severe form of TB is likely to be existed in which group of children?
Children younger than 3 or 5 years of age
5-7 years old
7-10 years old
10-13 years old
13-15 years old
Poor skin tests to a range of microbial antigens such as tuberculin and mumps indicate a deficiency of :
NK cells
T-cells
B-cells
Phagocytosis
Opsonization
Primary immunodeficiency producing susceptibility to infection by viruses and molds is due to :
B-cell deficiency
T-cell deficiency
Phagocyte deficiency
Complement deficiency
Eosinophil deficiency
Which of the following have not provided examples of secondary immunodeficiency :
Viral infection
Lymphoproliferative disorders
Cytotoxic drugs
High fat diet
Low iron diet
Terminal differentiation of mature B cells to plasma cells is blocked
Immunodeficiency
Hyper-IgM syndrome
Common variable immunodeficiency
Immunoglobulin G subclass deficiency
Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
Which of these following is live vaccine?
Hib ( hemophilus influenza)
Hepatitis B vaccine
Human papilloma virus vaccine
Hepatitis vaccine
BCG vaccine
Which of these following is use for anti-microbial prophylaxis in severe B cell defects?
Azitromicine
Cefuroxim
Itrazonazole
Trimethoprim sulfamethoxazole
Ofloxacine
Which of these following is not the severe manifestation in immunodeficiency disorder?
Mucocutaneous candidiasis
BCG sepsis
Lymphopenia (<2000/ul in infant )
Pneumocystis
Bronchiolitis
All of the following are considered primary immunodeficiency (PID) except which one?
Humoral immune : affect B cells or antibodies
T cell deficiency : affect T cells
Granulocyte deficiency : affect neutrophil granulocytes
Asplenia : affect spleen
Platelet deficiency
Child with T cell deficiency could be vaccinated all the following vaccines except which one?
Influenza
HEPATITIS A
HPV (Human papillomavirus)
Conjug PNEUMO
MEASLES
Chronic granulomatous disease (CGD) is in which of the following?
Humoral immune deficiency : affect B cells or antibodies
T cell deficiency : affect T cells
Granulocyte deficiency : affect neutrophil granulocytes
Asplenia : affect spleen
Complement deficiency
Graft vers Hot disease result when the recipients lack or has poor immune systems and the donor organ and recipient express
HLA (Human leucocyte antigen)
T-cell
Antibodies
Auto-antibodies
Interleukin
A gammagolobulinemia is an immunodeficiency disease du to deficiency
T cell
MHC (Major histocompatibility complex)
Ig E
Cytokine
B cell
Which of the following bind to mast cells and cross- link result in degranulation and release of histamine
Ig M
Ig A
Ig G
Interleukin
Ig E
Pregnancy test defects the presence of the following
Rh
Human chorionic gonadotropin ( HCG)
Fetal protein
Agglutination
Deparation factor
Primary immunodeficiency:
Are frequent in low income countries
Affect only the adaptive immune system
Can be caused by infection with HIV
Are the result of the single gene defects in immune function
Persistent immune over activation leading to apoptosis
Defect in the production of, or response to interferon primarily result in :
Increases susceptibility to intracellular pathogens such as mycobacterium
Increased susceptibility to viruses
Autoimmunity
Neutropenia
Immunodeficiency
Chronic granulomatous disease primarily affects
Recruitment of neutrophils
T cell activations
The ability to kill pathogens via the respiratory burst
Susceptibility to virus
Over production of regulations T cell
All of the following are immunodeficiency diseases expected :
Graves' disease
SCID (Severe combined immunodeficiency)
DiGeorg's syndrome
Hyper Ig M syndrome
AIDS
Severe combined immunodeficiency primary affects
Macrophages mast cell and T cell
T cell only
T cell and dendritic cells
T cell, B cell and in some cause NK cells
T cell and B cell
A major risk of gene therapy for reconstitution of immune deficiency in T cell is :
Leukemia due to the aberration insertion of retroviruses vector
Poor reconstitution efficacy
Rejection of the engrafftes cells
Immune reconstitution inflammatory syndromes
Over production of regulatory T cells
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