Infectiology
Infectiology Quiz: Test Your Knowledge on HIV and TB
Welcome to our Infectiology Quiz! This quiz is designed to test your understanding of HIV, AIDS, and Tuberculosis. Whether you're a student, educator, or just someone interested in infectious diseases, this quiz will challenge your knowledge with a variety of questions.
Key Features:
- Multiple choice questions
- Engaging and informative content
- Test your knowledge against others
What is the vertical transmission of HIV?
Transmission by a mosquito bite
Transmission from saliva
Transmission by any food uncooked
Transmission by kissing
Transmission directly from mother to her child during pregnancy, labor and delivery, or breastfeeding
How many children died due to AIDS-related illnesses in 2016?
50 000
120 000
20 000
30 000
40 000
Patients with CD4+ T cell counts of less than 200/microliter are at high risk for which of following opportunistic infections?
Pneumocystis Jiroveci
Dengue virus
Cytomegalovirus
Toxoplamosis
Plasmodium
Specific binding of HIV to the CD4 surface molecules of the host cell membrane is brought about by:
P55
Gp120
Gp41
P32
P13
Following medications used in an HIV patient cause bone marrow suppression except?
Ganciclovir
Zidovudin
Interferon alpha
Extra force tenofovir
Aciclovir
PCP (Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia) is caused by:
Fungal infection
Parasite
Bacteria
Virus
Prion
HIV target major cells in human body known as:
C-Lymphocytes
D-Lymphocytes
E-Lymphocytes
F-Lymphocytes
T-Lymphocytes
Severe hematological toxicity is associated with use of
Stavudin
Nevirapin
Efavirenz
Zidovudine
Aciclovir
When HIV invades in an individual, it destroys its:
Nervous system
Digestive system
Immunities system
Circulatory system
Respiratory system
What percentage of adherence is necessary for ARV’s to be effective?
95%
40%
50%
60%
70%
What laboratory values below would qualify a child for ART?
The hemoglobin is 6.8 g/dl
Platelet: 75,000
ALT: 625
White blood count: 6 with 8% neutrophil
All answer are not correct
What test do you use to definitively diagnose HIV in a child < 18 months old?
Rapid Test
DNA Polymerase chain reaction
RNA PCR
CD4
Viral load
. Which of the following is NOT a factor that INCREASES mother-to-child transmission of HIV?
Highest CD4s in mother
High viral load
Inter current STI
Acute HIV infection
Poor nutritional status
Which of the following is NOT a way a mother can pass HIV infection to her child?
During Delivery
Exclusive Breast feeding
Mixed feeding
The exclusive formula feeding
In utero (prior to delivery)
Which of the following is NOT an enzyme found in the HIV virus?
DNA polymerase chain reaction
Integrase
Protease
Amylase
All answers are not correct
All of the following strategies are effective in preventing mother to child transmission of HIV, except?
Zidovudine to mother
Vaginal cleansing before deliveries
Stopping breast feeding
Elective caesarian section
Zidovudine to baby
The highest risk of transmission from an HIV-infected mother to her infant occurs:
In utero
During the birth processing
Through breast feeding
Kissing a baby
Equal risk at each stage
Which of the following PMTCT (Prevention of mother-to-child transmission) interventions is correctly matched with the pregnancy stage that it affects?
Dual therapy and labor
Single dose NVP and in Utero
Exclusive formula feeding and in Utero
Caesarian section and post delivery
Maternal ART and in Utero, labor/delivery, and post delivery
The majority of immune cells are located in:
The guts
Peripheral blood
The liver
The kidney
The rectum
Opportunistic infections of the central nervous system typically occur when the CD4 level
1000
700
600
200
900
Which is TRUE regarding mutation in HIV?
All mutations cause resistance
Mutations are mistake made during HIV replication
Error made by an enzyme DNA polymerase
Lopinavir/ritonavir has a low genetic barrier
Lopinavir has quickly develops resistance
What of the following is NOT a factor that can use to resistance in HIV?
Drug and drug interaction
Insufficient doses of medication
Excellent adherence with HIV virus
Latent reservoir of HIV
All answers are not correct.
What enzyme is responsible for resistance in HIV?
Call the reverse transcriptase
RNA polymerase
Integrase
Protease
All answers are not correct
What proportion of AIDS patients have neuro-pathologic abnormalities at death?
10-15%
30-35%
75-90%
80-85%
90-95%
The most characteristic sign of HIV-associated neurocognitive disorder is :
Alzheimer’s like loss of cognitive ability
Memory loss
Slowing and lost precision in motor and mentation control
Language disturbance
Loss of vision
The ideal clinical specimen for pulmonary TB diagnosis is:
Blood
Sputum
Urine
Tissue
Stool
Which of the following constitutes a good sample for sputum microscopy?
5 ml of the muco-purulent sputum
5 ml of clear saliva
2 ml of lymphatic vessel
10 ml of clear saliva
2 ml of clear saliva
For a two years old child with suspected TB, the best clinical specimen for pulmonary TB diagnosis is:
Blood
Sputum
Take by the gastric aspirate
Bronchoalveolar lavage
Urine
The commonest radiologic finding in TB is:
Pleural effusion
Upper lobe consolidation with or without cavities
Pericardial effusion
Lung nodule
Pneumothorax
. The main cause of TB:
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Streptococcus pyogen
E. coli
Action bacteria
Lactobacillus Reuter
Among the following statement of tuberculosis infection, which one is right?
To make the spot specimen for bacilloscopy is the most profitable currently
Koch’s bacillus is a strict aerobic germ with rapid development
Transmission of M. Bovis is frequent for an extent of tuberculosis
TB complex is a group of fast growing mycobacteria
10 barrels / 300 fields confirm a diagnosis of pulmonary TB
Which of the following drugs has the highest potential to produce exfoliative dermatitis?
Isoniazid
Rifampicin
Pyrazinamide
Ethambutol
Streptomycin
Vaccine against to M. tuberculosis Bacille Calmette Guerin (BCG) is:
Live attenuated vaccine
Inactivated vaccine
Therapeutic serum
A toxoid
Conjugate vaccine
Which of the following drug/s should be given on an empty stomach for better bioavailability?
Isoniazid
Rifampicin
Ethambutol
Isoniazid as well as rifampicin
Pyrazinamid
The diagnosis of Tuberculosis in the child:
Sputum and gastric fluid
Tuberculin skin test
Other body fluid
Imaging: radiology, CT scan, echography, MRI/MRS
All answers are correct
Severe form tuberculosis includes:
Miliary tuberculosis
Meningitis tuberculosis
Pott disease
Intestinal tuberculosis
All answers are correct
Tuberculosis is transmitted through
Infected water
Infected hand
Infected blood
Infected air environment
Infected lymph
Anti-tuberculosis drug includes:
Isoniazid
Rifampicin
Pyrazinamid
Ethambutol
All answers are correct
Following are the first line anti-tuberculosis drug except:
Isoniazid
Rifampicin
Streptomycin
Pyrazinamid
Para-aminosalicyclic acid
What are the symptoms of active TB?
Weight loss
Night sweat
Loss of appetite
Chronic cough
All answers are correct
Which of the following diagnostics tests intended for latent tuberculosis infection?
Sputum smear microscopy
Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
Interferon-gamma release assay(IGRA)
ELISA for TB antibody
Serology
Which of the following diagnostics test can be used to diagnosis drug resistant tuberculosis?
Sputum smear microscopy
Depending on the liquid cultures
Interferon gamma release assay
Chest X ray
Scanner
Which of the following statements about Mycobacterium tuberculosis is false?
It is the bacterium whose reservoir is watery
It is a strict pathogen
It is a bacterium with strictly human to human transmission
Structure of its wall give it a natural resistance to many antibiotic
It is a slow growing bacterium
Which of the following is true of undernutrition and TB?
Under nutrition is a risk factor for TB
Tuberculosis can lead to undernutrition
Undernutrition worsens severity of tuberculosis
Undernutrition is associated with adverse outcomes in TB patient
All answers are correct
What is the minimum recommended number and timing of specimens for the diagnosis of pulmonary TB?
Three early morning sputum specimen
Two sputum specimens collected one hour apart
One sputum specimen taken on a same day
Only one early morning sputum
Three times for first day
The definition of Extensively Drug-Resistant (XDR) Tuberculosis includes:
Resistance to Rifampicin
Resistance to Isoniazid
Resistance to Ethambutol
Resistance to pyrazinamid
Resistance to Isoniazid and Rifampicin, plus any fluoroquinolone and at least one of three injectable second-line drugs
The definition of Multi-resistant (MDR) Tuberculosis includes:
Resistance to Isoniazid and Rifampicin
Resistance to Isoniazid
Resistance to Rifampicin
Resistance to Ethambutol
Resistance to Pyrazinamid
Which of the following statements about mycobacterium tuberculosis is correct?
It is a bacterium able to resist phagocytosis and colorizable bacterium by the method of Ziehl-Neelsen
It is a fast growing bacterium
It is a strict intracellular bacterium
It is a bacterium that can be stained by a Gram method
It is a bacterium can’t able to resist phagocytosis
Among the following signs that suggest a primary tuberculosis infection in a child, which one is true:
Erythema nodosum, prolonged febrile, phlyctenular conjunctivitis
Chronic diarrhea
Acute arthritis
Vomiting
Acute diarrhe
Which of the following statements about Secondary Multi-resistant (MDR) TB is correct?
Was not treated with an appreciate treatment regimen
Did not follow a treatment regimen as prescribed (took drugs incorrectly or took drug irregularly)
Malabsorption
Drug and drug interactions causing low serum level
All answers are correct
What are the top one killer infection disease in 2004?
Measle
Malaria
TB
HIV
Acute respiratory infections
Where are the top six killer infectious diseases attacked in 2004?
Sub Saharan Africa
South East Asia
Sub Saharan Africa and South East Asia
Asia
Europe
What is the age of children most at risk from infectious diseases?
5 years
11 years
8 years
9 years
10 years
How many percentages of deaths from the infectious diseases?
20%
35%
45%
55%
65%
How many groups of the organisms that cause infectious diseases?
12
13
11
14
7
What are the groups of organisms that cause infectious disease?
Virus
Bacteria
Fungi and protozoa
Helminths and arthropod
All answers are correct
What are the top 5 organisms cause infectious diseases?
Protozoa
Fungi
Bacteria
Viruses and prion
All answers are correct
How many basic shapes of Bacterial cells?
8
3
5
6
7
What are the 3 basic shapes of bacterial cells?
Fusiform
Coccobacili
Vibrios spirilla
Plat
Fusiform, Coccobacili and Vibrios spirilla
How is structural and biologic characteristics for classification?
2
7
5
6
4
What are the species of gram-positive bacteria (shape cocci, aerobic)?
S. Aureus and Streptococcus faecalis
P. magnus
B. anthracis
Tetani
P. acnes
What are the species of gram-Positive bacteria (Shape cocci, anaerobic)?
Peptococcus magnus
B. anthracis
Tetani
Monocytogene
S. faecalis
What are the species of gram-positive bacteria (shape bacilli, aerobic)?
Bacillus anthracis and L. monocytogenes
C. tetani
P. acnes
S. aureus
S. faecalis
What are the species of gram-positive bacteria (shape bacilli, anaerobic)?
C. Tetani and Propionibacterium acnes
S. aureus
S. faecalis
P. magnus
B. anthracis
What are the infectious diseases that invert immune system?
TB
HIV
Herpes zoster
Typhoid
All answers are correct
What are bacteria growth in present of oxygen?
Obligate aerobe
Microaerophilic
Obligate anaerobe
Facultative aerobe/anaerobe
Obligated, facultative aerobe/anaerobe
What are bacteria growth in absent of oxygen?
Obligate anaerobe
Obligate aerobe
Microaerophilic
Facultative aerobe/anaerobe
Obligate anaerobe and facultative aerobe/anaerobe
How many phases of the bacterial growth curve?
9
4
6
7
8
What are the phase of the bacterial growth curve?
Lag phase
Logarithmic phase
Stationary phase
Death phase
All answers are correct
What are major nutritional requirements for bacterial growth?
Carbon
Oxygen
Nitrogen and hydrogen
Phosphorus, sulfur and potassium
All answers are correct
Acquisition of hospital infection:
Self infection, cross infection, environmental infection
Self infection and cross infection
Self infection and environmental infection
Self infection and respiratory infection
All answers are not correct
What is cross infection?
Infection from hospital staff to patients and from patients to patient
Infection from animals to patient
Infection from medical staff to medical staff
Infection from patients to medical staff
Infection from parents to children
. Which is the most frequent hospital acquired infections in adult?
Urinary tract infection is the most
Surgical wounds infection
Lower respiratory tract infection
Bacteremia
All answers are not correct
The routes transmission of pathogens in hospitals acquired infection:
Airborne
Droplets spread
Direct contact and indirect contact
Common vehicle
All answers are correct
Which germ infected in acquired hospital infection cause chronic carrier
Salmonella typhi and hepatitis B
Measle
Varicella
Influenza
All answers are not correct
Risk factor for post-operative infection:
Longer stay
Operation on infection sit and resulting in fecal soiling
Present of foreign body
Poor blood supply
All answers are correct
Prevention of Catheter-Related Infections
Cover insertion site with dressing to prevent unnecessary contact
Always wash hands before procedure
Staff should wear gloves when manipulating catheter
Use single use disinfectant wipes; avoid multiuse containers of disinfectant
All answers are correct
Which age frequency respiratory syncytial virus infection?
Always on the infant
Gestation
Neonatal
Toddler
Older child
Which one is frequently according to manifestation in hospital acquired infection?
The respiratory infections
Gastrointestinal infection
Bacteremia
Wound infection
Urinary tract infection
The high risk of nosocomial infection in pediatric is the group of age
Usually on the newborn
Infant
Toddler
Adult
Older children
Risk factor of nosocomial infection in neonatal intensive care :
Preterm birth
Assisted ventilation
Central venous catheter
Cord artery/ venous catheter
All answers are correct
Prevention of nosocomial infection in pediatrics are
Hygiene and isolation measures , standard hygiene precautions, isolation precaution and heath
Antibiotherapy
Clumped and cut a cord with unclean instruments
Unclean IV catheter
All answers are not correct
What is the first natural antibiotics that have been discovered?
Group of Penicillin
Ofloxacin
Ciprofloxacin
Levofloxacin
Norfloxacin
In which year, have antibiotic been discovered?
1920
1970
1940
1950
1960
Which one is broad-spectrum antibiotic?
Amoxicillin
Levofloxacin
Tetracycline
Streptomycin
All answers are correct
What are mechanism of action of antibiotics?
Inhibits an enzyme
Interferes with cell wall synthesis
Interferes with DNA/RNA synthesis
Interferes with protein synthesis
All answers are correct
How does antibiotics work in inhibition of cell wall synthesis?
Block microorganisms to cross plasmic membrane
Formation intrinsically resistant
Reduced uptake of bacterias
Alteration bacterial' target site
All answers are correct
How does antibiotics work to interferes with DNA/RNA synthesis?
Alteration of alpha subunit of DNA gyrase
Decreased uptake by alteration of porine
Elimination of toxic compound
Formation intrinsic resistance
All answers are correct
How does antibiotics work to interferes with protein synthesis?
Mutation of ribosome binding site
Decreased uptake
Decreased penetration of bacteria
Active efflux of antibiotic out of cell
All answers are correct
How do bacteria become resistant to antibiotic?
Neutralize an antibiotic to a make it harmless
Pump an antibiotic back outside of a bacteria before it can do anything harm
Change their outer structure to confuse antibiotic's attachment
Mutation of their genetic material
All answers are correct
Which antibiotic play a role as an RNA synthesis inhibitor?
Only the Rifampicin
Metronidazole
Fluoroquinolone
Clindamycin
Tetracycline
Which antibiotic below doesn't have a role as cell wall inhibitor?
Only Rifampicin
Penicillin
Vancomycin
Cephalosporin
Carbapenem
Which antibiotic is not listed in group of carbapeneme?
Aztreoname
Imipenem
Meropenem
Doripenem
Ertapenem
How many types of penicillins?
8
4
9
6
7
Which antibiotic is not included in the group of cephalosporin's first generation?
Cephalothin
Cefazolin
Cephapirin
Cephradin
Ceftriaxone
Which antibiotic is considered to be safe during pregnancy?
Amoxicillin
Cephalexin
Erythromycin
Clindamycin
All answers are correct
Which antibiotic that must be avoid during pregnancy?
Nitrofuran derivation
Ampicellin
Amoxicillin
Ceftriaxon
Cephalexin
Which antibiotic below can induce ototoxicity?
Streptomycin
Neomycin
Kanamycin
Vancomycin
All answers are correct
Which antibiotic can disulfiram-like chemical reaction?
Metronidazole
Tinidazole
Cephamandole
Cefoperazone
All answers are correct
What is the role of metronidazole?
Works by stopping the growth of bacteria (DNA inhibitor)
RNA synthesis inhibitor
Folic acid synthesis inhibitor
Mycolic acid synthesis inhibitor
Cell wall inhibitor
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