Nutrition Exam
Nutrition Knowledge Assessment
Challenge your understanding of nutrition with our comprehensive quiz! Covering a range of topics from carbohydrates to fats, this quiz is designed to test and expand your knowledge on dietary standards, essential nutrients, and healthy eating practices.
Perfect for students, health enthusiasts, or anyone interested in learning more about nutrition.
- 233 questions to assess your knowledge
- Multiple choice format
- Learn as you go with explanations for each answer!
1) On what does the holistic model of health focus?
A) disease and illness
B) lifestyle and personal choice
C) surgery
D) diagnostic methods
2) Carbohydrates should provide how much of daily kilocalorie intake?
A) 30% to 40%
B) 45% to 65%
C) 70% to 75%
D) 80% to 85%
3) What is the body’s main storage form of carbohydrates?
A) adipose tissue
B) muscle tissue
C) glycogen
D) amino acids
4) What is the body’s secondary source of heat and energy?
A) carbohydrates
B) fats
C) proteins
D) B-complex vitamins
5) What is the primary function of proteins?
A) essential base for metabolism
B) regulate blood sugar levels
C) backup store of quick energy
D) tissue building
6) What scientific system of nutritional standards is used in the United States?
A) Dietary Reference Intakes (DRIs)
B) Adequate Intake (AI)
C) WHO guidelines
D) Estimated Average Requirement (EAR)
7) The USDA currently promotes which food guidance system?
A) Portion Control Table
B) Food Guide Pyramid
C) Lean for Life
D) MyPlate
8) What percentage of the population does the recommended dietary allowance of a nutrient cover?
A) 100%
B) 97.5%
C) 50%
D) 25.5%
9) Which mineral is necessary for the production of hemoglobin?
A) iron
B) calcium
C) phosphorus
D) cobalt
10) Which of the following is a possible sign of malnutrition?
A) smooth skin
B) glossy hair
C) erect posture
D) obesity
11) Plants convert solar energy into carbohydrates in which of the following processes?
A) mastication
B) photosynthesis
C) peristalsis
D) glycolysis
12) Which of the following is the abbreviation for carbohydrates that is typically used in medical charts, representing the three components that make up a carbohydrate?
A) Carb
B) CBO
C) CBS
D) CHO
13) Which polysaccharide is stored in the liver and muscles of animals and is broken down into smaller glucose units when needed for energy?
A) glycogen
B) starch
C) dietary fiber
D) polypeptides
14) Which of the following is a member of the disaccharide class of carbohydrates?
A) glucose
B) sucrose
C) glycogen
D) starch
15) The acids that are produced from fat breakdown when there is an insufficient amount of carbohydrate intake are called
A) glycogen.
B) ketones.
C) enzymes.
D) amylases.
16) Which of the following foods has the highest amount of insoluble fiber in a typical serving?
A) oatmeal
B) peach
C) wheat bran
D) rice cereal
17) Carbohydrates provide how much energy per gram?
A) 4 kcal/g
B) 5 kcal/g
C) 7 kcal/g
D) 9 kcal/g
18) What enzyme helps breaks down carbohydrates in the duodenum during digestion?
A) pancreatic amylase
B) fructose
C) bilirubin
D) ketones
19) Of the following ethnic groups, which one is the most likely to suffer from some degree of lactose intolerance?
A) English
B) Swedish
C) Native Americans
D) Scottish
20) Based on the most recent Dietary Reference Intakes (DRIs), carbohydrates should make up what percentage of an adult’s daily caloric intake?
A) 10% to 20%
B) 25% to 35%
C) 45% to 65%
D) 75% to 80%
21) Fats are
A) primary fuel for the body.
B) all soluble in water.
C) either liquid or solid.
D) mainly found in plant sources.
22) Which of the following is the name for three fatty acids and a glycerol backbone?
A) triglycerides
B) fatty acids
C) lipids
D) glycerol
23) A polyunsaturated fat is defined as a fatty acid
A) with all the hydrogen that it can hold.
B) from animal sources.
C) that has one open space for hydrogen.
D) that has two or more unfilled spaces for hydrogen.
24) Alpha-linolenic acid is what type of fatty acid?
A) lipoprotein.
B) omega-3 fatty acid.
C) cholesterol.
D) omega-6 fatty acid.
25) How much energy does fat provide when used by the body?
A) 5 kcal/g
B) 7 kcal/g
C) 4 kcal/g
D) 9 kcal/g
26) Which of the following is a major source of monounsaturated fats in the diet?
A) dairy products
B) poultry
C) vegetable oils
D) eggs
27) According to the FDA, which of the following is mandatory information about fats on a food label?
A) monounsaturated fat
B) polyunsaturated fat
C) calories from saturated fats
D) trans fat
28) The recommended amount of saturated fat in a person’s diet should not exceed which percentage of daily calories?
A) 10%
B) 15%
C) 20%
D) 35%
29) What does the gallbladder release into the small intestine to aid in fat digestion?
A) pancreatic enzymes
B) stomach acid
C) lingual lipase
D) bile
30) An excessive amount of fat in the diet can increase the risk for
A) thyroid disease.
B) depression.
C) cancer.
D) osteoporosis.
31) All proteins are made up of building units that are known as
A) essential nutrients.
B) peptides.
C) proenzymes.
D) amino acids.
32) Which of the following amino acids is an indispensable amino acid?
A) phenylalanine
B) serine
C) cysteine
D) asparagine
33) When referring to amino acids, what does the term conditionally indispensable mean?
A) They can only be obtained from dietary sources.
B) They can be synthesized from other amino acids in the body.
C) They are not necessary.
D) They are indispensable under certain conditions, such as illness or stress, but can normally be synthesized by the body.
34) The process in which amino acids are made into proteins is called
A) metabolism.
B) anabolism.
C) deamination.
D) catabolism
35) Protein provides the main source of which element in the diet?
A) oxygen
B) hydrogen
C) nitrogen
D) carbon
36) What is the primary function of protein in the body?
A) provides the primary fuel source for the body
B) builds new tissue and repairs damaged tissue
C) regulates temperature
D) carries fat-soluble vitamins to the blood
37) A protein food that carries all nine of the indispensable amino acids in a quantity necessary to meet the body’s needs is a(n)
A) incomplete protein.
B) complementary protein.
C) lipoprotein.
D) complete protein.
38) A vegetarian who eats a combination of plant foods and dairy foods, such as cheese and milk, is considered which type of vegetarian?
A) lacto-vegetarian
B) lacto-ovo-vegetarian
C) ovo-vegetarian
D) vegan
39) What activates pepsinogen to pepsin in the stomach?
A) Chymotrypsin
B) mucus
C) hydrochloric acid
D) enterokinase
40) Of the following people, who would have the highest protein requirements?
A) a 6-month-old infant
B) a 7-year-old child
C) a 25-year-old woman
D) a 30-year-old man
41) The process by which nutrients are taken into the vascular and lymphatic system is
A) digestion.
B) cell metabolism.
C) transport.
D) absorption.
42) Which substance is responsible for breaking down food in the digestion process?
A) mucus
B) electrolytes
C) bile
D) enzymes
43) The primary function of mucus in the digestion process is to
A) decrease the acidity.
B) protect the tissues in the GI tract.
C) break down food into smaller particles.
D) propel food through the GI tract.
44) One of the common causes of heartburn is
A) improper function of the gastroesophageal sphincter.
B) too much gastric acid in the stomach.
C) cardiac disease.
D) a problem with the pyloric valve.
45) Which enzyme is responsible for breaking down fats during digestion?
A) salivary amylase
B) pancreatic lipase
C) secretin
D) pepsin
46) Bioavailability is best defined as
A) the amount of a nutrient in the body.
B) the amount of nutrients that are needed by the body.
C) how well the body can absorb a nutrient.
D) the amount of nutrients that come from a food.
47) An absorption process in which particles move outward in all directions from an area of greater concentration to an area of lesser concentration is called
A) active transport.
B) simple diffusion.
C) facilitated diffusion.
D) pinocytosis.
48) Which of the following types of substances are transported via the lymphatic system?
A) oxygen
B) water soluble nutrients
C) nitrogen
D) fat molecules
49) The process in which large substances are broken down to form small particles in cells is called
A) anabolism.
B) metabolism.
C) active transport.
D) catabolism.
50) If the following substances were present in the body at the same time, which would be metabolized first?
A) protein
B) carbohydrates
C) alcohol
D) cholesterol
51) Which of the following is an example of voluntary work?
A) swimming
B) respiration
C) digestion
D) circulation
52) Which nutrient is the body’s primary fuel?
A) muscle mass
B) protein
C) carbohydrate
D) calories
53) What is the fuel factor for fat?
A) 4 kcal/g
B) 5 kcal/g
C) 7 kcal/g
D) 9 kcal/g
54) Which nutrient has the highest caloric density?
A) protein
B) alcohol
C) carbohydrate
D) fat
55) Fill in the sentence with the correct measurement terms: 1000 ______ make up a_________.
A) calories, kilocalorie
B) kilocalories, calorie
C) nutrients, Calorie
D) Calories, kilocalorie
56) Where does the energy that our bodies need come from?
A) stored fat
B) the sun
C) food
D) water
57) Which source of stored energy supplies the body’s fuel during sleep?
A) adipose tissue
B) glycogen
C) muscle mass
D) thermal energy
58) Which factor has the greatest effect on basal metabolic rate?
A) body surface area
B) gender
C) age
D) lean body mass
59) Which of the following conditions decreases the basal metabolic rate?
A) hypothyroidism
B) pregnancy
C) fever
D) cancer
60) What is the most variable component of total energy expenditure for any given person?
A) physical activity
B) resting metabolic rate
C) growth periods
D) thermic effect of food
61) What is one of the functions of vitamins?
A) to act as an antioxidant
B) to provide energy
C) to provide hydration
D) To increase basal metabolic rate
62) What are the two metric measures used for vitamins in the U.S.?
A) mg, mcg
B) mg, mL
C) mg, g
D) ng, mcg
63) Enzymes and coenzymes control specific chemical reactions by acting as
A) components.
B) necessary components.
C) catalysts.
D) solutes.
64) What is a defining characteristic of vitamins?
A) The body cannot manufacture it in sufficient quantities to sustain life.
B) The body can always manufacture it in sufficient quantities to sustain life.
C) It must be a vital organic substance that is not a micronutrient.
D) It is not necessary to perform any specific metabolic function.
65) Fat-soluble vitamins are dependent upon dietary fat for
A) adduction.
B) abduction
C) absorption. For example: Vitamin A, D, E, K (fat)
D) elimination.
66) Calciferol is the chemical name given to which vitamin?
A) vitamin B
B) vitamin A
C) vitamin B12
D) vitamin D
67) The earliest discovered function of vitamin K is
A) to act as an antioxidant.
B) skeletal cell growth.
C) the production of immune cells.
D) in the blood-clotting process.
68) Cobalamin is the chemical name for which vitamin?
A) vitamin C
B) B6
C) B12
D) vitamin K
69) A phytochemical is a
A) vitamin.
B) plant compound.
C) mineral.
D) fat compound.
70) Functional foods are
A) carbohydrates.
B) phytochemicals.
C) whole foods with added nutrients.
D) foods that contain megadoses.
71) Of the 118 elements on the periodic table, how many are essential to human life?
A) 4
B) 16
C) 25
D) 54
72) Which of the following is a major mineral?
A) fluoride
B) chloride
C) iron
D) zinc
73) The presence of which of the following can bind minerals in the GI tract and inhibit or limit the mineral absorption?
A) phytochemicals
B) vitamin A, vitamin C
C) nuts
D) fiber, phytates, oxalates
74) Which of the following is a trace element?
A) fluoride
B) chloride
C) sodium
D) sulfur
75) Approximately what percent of the normal adult body weight is calcium?
A) 1.5%
B) 3%
C) 5.5%
D) 10%
76) Which mineral is one of the most plentiful in the body?
A) zinc
B) sodium
C) fluoride
D) phosphorus
77) What is one of today’s most prevalent nutrition problems?
A) scurvy
B) iron deficiency anemia
C) megaloblastic anemia
D) plaque
78) Zinc has a function involving which of the following?
A) vitamin C
B) glucose
C) insulin
D) vitamin K
79) Which hormone regulates the uptake of iodine from the blood?
A) aldosterone
B) antidiuretic hormone
C) thyroid-stimulating hormone
D) epinephrine
80) Minerals are classified according to their
A) relative amounts in the body.
B) importance in body functions.
C) role in metabolic functions.
D) size.
81) The state of dynamic equilibrium in the body is called
A) interstitial fluid.
B) acid-base balance.
C) the law of isotonicity.
D) homeostasis.
82) How many milliliters of water are needed for every 1000 kilocalories in the diet?
A) 800 mL
B) 1000 mL
C) 1500 mL
D) 2000 mL
83) Water comprises how much of an infant’s total body content?
A) 10% to 25%
B) 30% to 50%
C) 60% to 65%
D) 70% to 75%
84) Which organ excretes the largest amount of body water?
A) kidneys
B) intestines
C) skin
D) lungs
85) What two solute particles primarily influence water balance?
A) electrolytes and plasma proteins
B) cations and anions
C) glucose and insulin
D) antidiuretic hormone and aldosterone
86) The process of diffusion occurs when solute molecules move
A) from an area of lesser concentration to greater concentration.
B) from an area of greater concentration to lesser concentration.
C) via osmosis.
D) via pinocytosis.
87) Which digestive secretion is produced in the greatest volume during a 24-hour period?
A) saliva
B) pancreatic secretions
C) bile
D) intestinal secretions
88) Where in the body is aldosterone secreted?
A) adrenal glands
B) kidneys
C) pituitary gland
D) hypothalamus
89) A pH of 7.4 is considered what?
A) alkaline
B) acidic
C) neutral
D) catabolic
90) Which organs primarily control acid-base balance?
A) liver and kidneys
B) pituitary and adrenal glands
C) lungs and kidneys
D) stomach and intestines
91) Which of the following foods would help a pregnant woman increase her protein intake?
A) oranges
B) cheese
C) fruit juice
D) avocados
92) What component in the blood prevents edema in pregnancy?
A) hemoglobin
B) red blood cells
C) white blood cells
D) albumin
93) Approximately how many additional calories are needed during the third trimester of pregnancy?
A) 200
B) 250
C) 350
D) 450
94) Amniotic fluid is important because it
A) provides the fetus with warmth.
B) protects the fetus from shock.
C) protects the mother.
D) prevents edema.
95) Which of the following micronutrients, when eaten in adequate amounts, aids in the prevention of spina bifida?
A) folate
B) calcium
C) iodine
D) vitamin D
96) During pregnancy, a normal weight woman should gain approximately
A) 11 to 20 pounds.
B) 15 to 25 pounds.
C) 25 to 35 pounds.
D) 28 to 40 pounds.
97) Fortified milk and sunlight help to meet the pregnant mother’s need for
A) iron.
B) vitamin C.
C) iodine.
D) vitamin D.
98) Alcohol use and cigarette smoking, which can cause injury to the fetus, are known as
A) teratogens.
B) recreational drugs.
C) folates.
D) complicating factors.
99) Macrosomia is a complication resulting from
A) pregnancy-induced hypertension.
B) gastric cancer.
C) intrauterine growth retardation.
D) gestational diabetes.
100) It is recommended that mothers breastfeed for at least
A) 3 months.
B) 6 months.
C) 12 months.
D) 18 months.
111) The life cycle in which growth occurs in small spurts and appetites taper off during periodic plateaus is
A) infancy.
B) childhood.
C) adolescence.
D) adulthood.
112) What value on the growth chart can be used continuously from age 2 to 20?
A) body mass index
B) head circumference
C) general signs of health
D) general eating habits
113) Which age group has the highest kcal/kg/day need?
A) 1- to 3-year-old children
B) adults
C) adolescents
D) premature infants
114) The nutrient that provides the main source of energy for the body is
A) protein.
B) fats.
C) carbohydrates.
D) vitamins.
115) The nutrient essential for tissue building is
A) vitamin.
B) fat.
C) carbohydrate.
D) protein.
116) Which age group requires more water per unit of body weight?
A) infants
B) adolescents
C) adults
D) young children
117) What are the approximate daily fluid needs of an infant from birth to 6 months of age?
A) 0.7 L/day
B) 1.3 L/day
C) 1.7 L/day
D) 3.7 L/day
118) An infant classified as having a very low birth weight weigh
A) less than 3500 g (7 lb 11 oz).
B) less than 2500 g (5 lb 8 oz).
C) less than 1500 g (3 lb 5 oz).
D) less than 100 g (2 lb 3 oz).
119) Children are most commonly exposed to lead through
A) house paint.
B) vegetables with high lead content.
C) industrial parks.
D) toys.
120) The two vitamins that are needed in supplemental form for breastfed infants are
A) vitamins C and K.
B) vitamins K and D.
C) vitamins A and D.
D) vitamins B and K.
121) The leading cause of unintended weight loss in the elderly population is
A) cancer.
B) depression.
C) confusion.
D) heart disease.
122) What factors have an effect on appetite in the elderly?
A) decrease in digestive juice secretion
B) decrease in motility of GI muscles
C) decrease in taste, smell, and vision
D) decrease in hand function
123) Which of the following is the fastest growing population group in the country?
A) Native American
B) African American
C) Caucasian
D) Hispanic American
124) Which age group is characterized by increasing independence, forming many new relationships, and significant personal growth?
A) young adult
B) middle adult
C) older adult
D) young old adult
125) Which age subdivision of the older adult is considered elderly?
A) 45 to 64 years
B) 65 to 74 years
C) 75 to 84 years
D) 85 and older
126) Which group of adults is contributing to the productive work force and redefining what it means to be a senior citizen?
A) middle adult
B) young old adult
C) elderly adult
D) old old adult
127) Menopause can result in
A) an increase in body fat.
B) an increase in lean tissue.
C) an increase in bone density.
D) a decrease in risk of cardiovascular disease.
128) A major contributing factor to loss of skeletal muscle mass is
A) lack of exercise.
B) loss of weight.
C) hormonal changes.
D) reduced intake of calcium.
129) The primary nutrition problem of the older adults is
A) increased concern about body functions.
B) personal losses.
C) poor hand-to-eye coordination.
D) lack of sufficient nourishment.
130) The basic fuel necessary to supply energy needs in the older adult is primarily
A) fat.
B) protein.
C) carbohydrates.
D) vitamins.
131) The health of a community depends on which of the following factors?
A) marketing of food products
B) the availability of brand-name products
C) the availability of neighborhood grocery stores
D) the safety of available foods and the water supply
132) The phrase “percent daily value” on a food product label can be used to determine
A) the overall value of a specific nutrient.
B) the proper serving size.
C) the total fat in a specific food product.
D) the vitamins and minerals in a specific food product.
133) Diarrhea, nausea, vomiting, flu-like symptoms, or fever are symptoms of
A) genetic modification.
B) food irradiation.
C) food-borne illness.
D) organic additives.
134) What is the most important food sanitation factor when purchasing foods?
A) the buying and storing of food
B) the cleanliness of the store
C) the advertisement of a sale
D) the amount of food purchased
135) Food label regulations are the responsibility of the
A) FBI.
B) U.S. Department of Food Labeling.
C) FDA
D) EEOC.
136) Flavor enhancers are one example of
A) soft drinks.
B) monoglycerides.
C) food additives.
D) ammonium chlorides.
137) The acronym WIC stands for
A) World Indicators for Children.
B) Women, Infants, and Children.
C) Women Impacts on Children.
D) World Infant Coalition.
138) Which factor often prevents consumers from obtaining adequate food supplies?
A) lack of adequate food supplies in the United States
B) busy lifestyles
C) complex food labels
D) poverty
139) Which of the following is most likely to result in food-borne diseases?
A) washing food in hot water
B) the presence of various organisms
C) discoloration of foods
D) overcooking foods
140) Which environmental food contaminant is found mostly in older homes and rental houses?
A) lead
B) mercury
C) uranium
D) copper
141) In Judaism, an animal that is kosher to eat is
A) pig.
B) rabbit.
C) shellfish.
D) sheep.
142) According to Muslim beliefs about seafood, one can
A) eat all fish.
B) not eat shellfish.
C) not eat eels.
D) not eat octopus.
143) “Halal” in Islam is equivalent to the Jewish practice of
A) kosher.
B) kasha.
C) shibboleth.
D) matzo
144) During Ramadan, fasting is mandated for
A) everyone.
B) able bodied adults.
C) adults only, both sick and healthy.
D) men only.
145) One concern about the changes in the contemporary Native American diet is
A) using too much corn in cooking.
B) eating meat daily.
C) eating high-fat and high-salt snacks.
D) drinking coffee.
146) Cajun foods
A) use corn as a main ingredient.
B) are spicy and include a lot of seafood.
C) include cereals such as bulgur and buckwheat.
D) include soy sauce.
147) Which of the following foods is seldom used in Asian cuisine?
A) cheese
B) soy sauce
C) rice
D) shrimp
148) Name one reason that African Americans use few milk products in their diets.
A) It is not traditional to African-American culture to raise cows.
B) Milk is forbidden by the African-American religion.
C) A lot of African Americans are lactose intolerant.
D) Few African Americans eat beef.
149) Acculturation refers to
A) a process of dividing cultures according to food intake.
B) scientifically unsubstantiated beliefs about certain foods.
C) a belief that a certain food is poisonous.
D) changes in dietary intake, lifestyle, and disease risk to match those of a new country.
150) Snacking
A) is harmful to one’s health and needs to be avoided.
B) is acceptable if it fits in with the daily meal plan.
C) leads to anorexia due to consumption of empty calories.
D) leads to kidney disease because a lot of snack foods are salty and high in fat.
151) What is the clinical definition of obesity?
A) body weight above height for weight standards
B) body mass index >20
C) weight greater than 125 lbs in females
D) at least 20% above desired height for weight standard
152) The ideal body weight goal for a 5’11” man would be
A) 166 lbs +/ 10%.
B) 172 lbs +/ 10%.
C) 184 lbs +/ 10%.
D) 198 lbs +/ 10%.
153) The relative size of muscle mass, fat, water, and bone in the body make up
A) body composition.
B) body mass index.
C) basal energy needs.
D) body-fat ratio.
154) What is the minimum range of body fat necessary for a woman to survive?
A) 3%
B) 7%
C) 12%
D) 25%
155) What is one of the major causes of obesity in the United States?
A) inadequate intake of food
B) lack of physical activity
C) hormone imbalances
D) slow metabolism
156) The drug orlistat (Xenical), which is approved for weight loss by the FDA, assists with weight loss by
A) increasing the heart rate.
B) suppressing appetite.
C) inhibiting dietary fat absorption.
D) shrinking fat cells in the body.
157) The hormone leptin was once thought to serve as a negative feedback mechanism by
A) increasing basal metabolic rate.
B) signaling for greater energy intake.
C) signaling against energy overconsumption.
D) releasing glucose into the bloodstream for energy.
158) Which of the following is a characteristic of a successful weight-management program?
A) nutritional adequacy
B) chronic dieting
C) decreased energy output
D) no plateaus
159) Bulimia nervosa is characterized by which of the following?
A) intense fear of weight gain
B) refusal to gain the minimal body weight for age/height
C) recurrent episodes of binge eating
D) absence of menstrual cycle
160) What is a health problem associated with being underweight?
A) joint problems
B) hypertension
C) poor circulation
D) lowered resistance to infection
161) Body movement that is produced by the contraction of muscles and substantially increases energy expenditure is
A) exercise.
B) physical fitness.
C) physical activity.
D) aerobic activity.
162) Which of the following is classified as moderate activity?
A) jogging
B) playing golf
C) light gardening
D) aerobics
163) Exercise reduces the risk for heart disease by
A) strengthening the heart muscle.
B) increasing cholesterol.
C) curing high blood pressure.
D) decreasing the stroke volume of the heart.
164) To achieve aerobic benefits of exercise the heart rate should be at what level?
A) the maximum attainable heart rate
B) 50% of maximum attainable heart rate
C) 70% of maximum attainable heart rate
D) 90% of maximum attainable heart rate
165) Which of the following are necessary fuels for energy during exercise?
A) glucose, lipids, and fatty acids
B) glucose, glycogen, and fatty acids
C) protein, lipids, and glucose
D) water, electrolytes, and protein
166) What defines cardiovascular fitness?
A) overall fitness level
B) body composition
C) aerobic capacity
D) heart rate
167) How many grams of carbohydrates does an athlete require to meet general training needs?
A) 1 to 2 grams of carbohydrate per kg of body weight per day
B) 3 to 7 grams of carbohydrate per kg of body weight per day
C) 7 to 10 grams of carbohydrate per kg of body weight per day
D) 12 grams of carbohydrate per kg of body weight per day
168) Sports drinks should only be used to prevent dehydration under what circumstances?
A) in endurance sports lasting more than 1 hour
B) any time a person exercises
C) if sweating is going to occur
D) in hot weather to prevent heat stroke
169) The use of steroids by an adolescent can cause which of the following side effects?
A) increased sex drive
B) increased ability in sports
C) decreased sperm production
D) increased height and weight
170) A pregame meal should be comprised mainly of which of the following?
A) protein
B) complex carbohydrates
C) simple sugars
D) fats
171) The health professional whose major responsibility centers on nutrition care is a
A) nurse.
B) registered dietitian.
C) physician.
D) patient.
172) The first step in providing a patient with clinical nutrition care is
A) identifying problems.
B) planning care.
C) discussion with physicians.
D) collecting information.
173) What laboratory test measures immune system integrity?
A) lymphocyte counts
B) serum albumin levels
C) 24-hour urine test
D) serum transferrin levels
174) A pureed diet is an example of what type of diet modification?
A) texture
B) energy
C) nutrients
D) appearance
175) Which sign suggests a nutrient deficiency?
A) pink conjunctivae
B) clear skin
C) mottling of teeth
D) poor wound healing
176) Which measurement can help indicate risk for chronic disease?
A) Resting metabolic rate
B) Waist circumference
C) Liver enzymes
D) Body mass index
177) What type of feeding is administered by a tube and makes use of the digestion and absorption functions of the gastrointestinal tract to provide nutrition to those unable to take food orally?
A) oral
B) parenteral feeding
C) enteral
D) coordinated
178) The best time to weigh a hospitalized patient is
A) in the evening.
B) after breakfast.
C) early in the morning.
D) whenever you have time.
179) The physical examination includes
A) a diet history.
B) plasma protein status.
C) evaluation of nail integrity.
D) the patient’s weight.
180) The nurse’s role in clinical nutrition is primarily to help
A) determine calorie needs.
B) develop the plan of care.
C) determine body composition.
D) order diagnostic tests.
181) A condition of the oral cavity that can affect nutrition and is characterized by an inflammation of the oral mucous lining
A) cheilosis.
B) glossitis.
C) gingivitis.
D) stomatitis
182) Which of the following is a sign that a person might have dysphagia?
A) persistent dry mouth
B) recurrent pneumonia caused by aspiration
C) inflammation of the mucous membranes
D) gastroesophageal reflux
183) Circular muscles that act as valves to control food passage are
A) sphincters.
B) gingivitis.
C) esophagitis
D) strictures
184) Which of the following is a goal in treatment for gastroesophageal reflux disease?
A) repairing the sphincter
B) relaxing the sphincter
C) decreasing esophageal irritation
D) increasing pepsin production
185) Which of the following is a potential complication of peptic ulcer disease (PUD)?
A) heartburn
B) perforation
C) inflammatory bowel disease
D) gastritis
186) Dietary management of gastroesophageal reflux disease includes
A) consuming a bland diet.
B) drinking milk frequently.
C) eating frequent snacks.
D) avoiding alcohol and coffee.
187) Diarrhea lasting more than 4 weeks in duration is known as
A) traveler’s diarrhea
B) chronic diarrhea.
C) lactose intolerance.
D) malabsorption.
188) Diseases that affect the small intestine include
A) celiac sprue, diverticulitis, and inflammatory bowel disease.
B) malabsorption, diverticulitis, and celiac sprue.
C) celiac disease, cystic fibrosis, and inflammatory bowel disease.
D) irritable bowel syndrome, inflammatory bowel disease, and celiac sprue.
189) Cholecystitis is a disease that affects which one of the gastrointestinal accessory organs?
A) liver
B) pancreas
C) small intestine
D) gallbladder
190) The most common cause of fatty cirrhosis of the liver is
A) alcoholism.
B) acute hepatitis.
C) ascites.
D) galactosemia.
191) _____ carry fat in the bloodstream.
A) Proteins
B) Red blood cells
C) White blood cells
D) Lipoproteins
192) A(n) _____ occurs when the heart muscle is deprived of blood and oxygen resulting in cell death.
A) CVA
B) angina pectoris
C) myocardial infarction
D) congestive heart failure
193) Lipoproteins are comprised of
A) proteins and fats.
B) fats and lipids.
C) carbohydrates and lipids.
D) sodium and fats.
194) Which of the following is a symptom or side effect of another main condition, such as kidney disease?
A) pulmonary edema
B) secondary hypertension
C) atherosclerosis
D) angina pectoris
195) Elevated levels of this substance are a major risk factor for atherosclerosis.
A) sodium
B) potassium
C) high-density lipoproteins
D) blood cholesterol
196) A modifiable risk factor for heart disease is
A) race.
B) age.
C) diet.
D) family history.
197) A chronic condition in which a weakened heart muscle cannot maintain adequate cardiac output for adequate blood circulation is called
A) congestive heart failure.
B) primary hypertension.
C) angina pectoris.
D) a cerebrovascular accident.
198) Following an acute cardiovascular event, patients are encouraged to
A) eat moderate, healthy meals to increase energy output.
B) eat small meals during the day to decrease the level of metabolic activity.
C) eat solid foods for better digestion and heart activity.
D) eat a diet rich in sodium.
199) Which diet is specifically designed to lower blood pressure?
A) DASH.
B) Step I.
C) TLC.
D) AHA.
200) To help lower cholesterol and blood pressure, patients are encouraged to
A) seek hypnotherapy.
B) lose weight.
C) take aspirin twice daily.
D) eat two servings of liver weekly.
201) A risk factor for type 2 diabetes mellitus is
A) being underweight.
B) being younger than 45 years of age.
C) physical inactivity.
D) being Caucasian.
202) What causes type 1 diabetes mellitus?
A) obesity
B) autoimmune destruction of beta cells
C) physical inactivity
D) pregnancy
203) What is the cornerstone of treatment for type 2 diabetes mellitus?
A) starvation diet
B) insulin injections
C) supplemental pancreatic enzymes
D) diet therapy and exercise
204) Which of the following is an early sign of diabetes?
A) hypoglycemia
B) polyuria
C) ketoacidosis
D) coma
205) Where in the body is insulin produced?
A) the hypothalamus
B) alpha cells of the pancreas
C) delta cells of the pancreas
D) beta cells of the pancreas
206) What is a fetal complication associated with gestational diabetes?
A) oligohydramnios
B) Cushing’s syndrome
C) macrosomia
D) low birth weight
207) What is the major cause of death associated with diabetes?
A) retinopathy
B) nephropathy
C) cardiovascular disease
D) neuropathy
208) Which dietary strategy applies to both type 1 and type 2 diabetes?
A) decrease daily kilocalorie intake
B) increase number and frequency of meals and snacks
C) plan regular times for meals and snacks
D) avoid complex carbohydrates
209) Which of the following is a symptom of hypoglycemia?
A) sweating
B) dry skin
C) extreme thirst
D) frequent urination
210) Which type of insulin has an onset of 30 to 60 minutes and duration of 5 to 8 hours?
A) rapid-acting
B) short-acting
C) intermediate-acting
D) long-acting
211) What is the functional unit of the kidney?
A) ureter
B) renal artery
C) nephron
D) Loop of Henle
212) What is the leading cause of end-stage renal disease in the United States?
A) diabetes mellitus
B) polycystic kidney disease
D) kidney stones
D) kidney stones
213) What is the preferred method for assessing kidney function?
A) reviewing glomerular filtration rate
B) reviewing intake and output records
C) reviewing blood urea nitrogen levels
D) reviewing creatinine levels
214) What dietary considerations apply to uncomplicated glomerulonephritis?
A) protein restriction
B) salt restriction
C) adjustment of fluid intake to output
D) restriction of dairy products
215) What should be restricted for patients receiving hemodialysis?
A) carbohydrates
B) milk
C) fiber
D) water-soluble vitamins
216) Erythropoietin is a hormone that
A) stimulates red blood cell production.
B) conserves water by reabsorption.
C) conserves water by sodium reabsorption.
D) increases blood urea nitrogen levels.
217) Which type of kidney stone results from infection rather than diet?
A) calcium stones
B) uric acid stones
C) xanthine stones
D) struvite stones
218) An excess of urea and other nitrogenous in the blood is called
A) osteodystrophy.
B) azotemia.
C) dialysis
D) collagen disease.
219) How is end-stage renal failure treated?
A) antibiotics
B) dietary control of purines
C) intravenous fluids
D) dialysis or kidney transplant
220) An excess of which nutrient is implicated in kidney disease?
A) fat
B) simple carbohydrates
C) complex carbohydrates
Protein
221) What physical finding helps identify protein-energy malnutrition?
A) skin condition and turgor
B) fluid intake and output
C) unplanned weight loss
D) bruising
222) What are all formulas enriched with?
A) calcium
B) protein
C) vitamin and minerals
D) fat
223) What is given to spare protein for tissue building?
A) water
B) fats
C) carbohydrates
D) vitamins and minerals
224) Bolus feedings
A) Increase risk for aspiration
B) are well tolerated after surgery
C) are difficult to administer
D) consist of up to 400 mL of feeding
225) What is the primary gastrointestinal side effect associated with tube feedings?
A) decreased bowel motility
B) constipation
C) abdominal cramps
D) diarrhea
226) How is central parenteral nutrition (TPN) administered?
A) nasogastric tube
B) percutaneous endoscopic jejunostomy
C)small peripheral vein catheter
D). Large central vein catheter
227) What intervention can help reduce dumping syndrome?
A) large meals at regular times
B) administration of insulin before meals
C) reducing dietary fat
D) drinking before and after meals
228) Following a cholecystectomy, what nutrient should be reduced?
A) carbohydrate
B) protein
C) fat
D) water
229) What type of fluids should be administered during the ebb phase following a burn?
A) lactated Ringer’s solution
B) TPN solution
C) D5W
D) normal saline
230) Why is food intake restricted at least 8 hours before surgery?
A) to prevent postsurgical ileus
B) to rest the bowels
C) to prevent aspiration of stomach contents
D) to prevent hyperglycemia
231) What is the most common type of skin cancer?
A) basal cell carcinoma
B) squamous cell carcinoma
C) melanoma
D) sarcoma
232) Where do T cells originate?
A) bone marrow
B) thymus
C) intestinal tract
D) lymph nodes
233) What is not a systemic effect of cancer?
A) loss of appetite
B) increased metabolism
C) lean tissue catabolism
D) positive nitrogen balance
234) Which of the following is NOT a nutrition management strategy for patients with cancer?
A) eat on a regular schedule, regardless of hunger
B) eat foods with gravies or sauces
C) eat large, frequent low-calorie meals
D) plan meals with favorite foods
235) Cachexia refers to
A) immune suppression.
B) stomatitis.
C) tissue wasting in advanced disease.
D) abnormal cellular growth.
236) Which has a strong protective association with breast cancer?
A) use of dietary supplements
B) consumption of red meat
C) regular physical activity
D) saturated fat
237) Which of the following is an effective form of nutrition counseling?
A) avoid answering difficult patient questions to reduce stress
B) provide rationale for dietary goals and actions
C) encourage rapid and intensive lifestyle alterations
D) limit caregiver involvement to promote patient independence
238) Malnutrition and weight loss in AIDS is related to
A) sexual preference.
B) processed foods and chemical additives.
C) increased fat consumption.
D) malabsorption of nutrients.
239) How is HIV primarily transmitted among women?
A) intravenous drug use
B) homosexual orientation
C) blood transfusion
D) heterosexual activity
240) What is the most common AIDS-associated cancer?
A) prostate cancer
B) testicular cancer
C) malignant melanoma
D) Kaposi’s sarcoma
241) A condition of the oral cavity that can affect nutrition and is characterized by an inflammation of the oral mucous lining
A) cheilosis
B) glossitis.
D) stomatitis.
D) stomatitis.
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