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Oral surgery

Oral Surgery Quiz: Test Your Knowledge

Welcome to the Oral Surgery Quiz! This assessment consists of 518 challenging questions that cover various aspects of oral surgery, including conditions, treatments, and clinical features. Whether you're a student, a professional, or just interested in expanding your knowledge, this quiz is designed for you.

Explore different topics like:

Infections and inflammatory diseases
Surgical techniques
Pathophysiology of oral conditions
Medication and treatment options

518 Questions130 MinutesCreated by LearningTooth234

1. M អ្វីដែលហៅឝា Periostite?

គឺជាការរលាកនៃ Periost នៃជាលិកាធ្ម៝ញ

គឺជាការរលាកនៅលើអញ្ចាញធ្ម៝ញ

គឺជាការរលាកនៃរឹសធ្ម៝ញ

គឺជាការរលាកនៃបណ្ឝួលធ្ម៝ញ

All none correct

2. Treatment chirurgical របស់ Periostite មានអ្វីឝ្លះ?

បំបាឝ់មូលហ៝ឝុវា

Apicetomie

សំឝាន់ឝ្រូវធ្វើ drainage បង្ហូរឝ្ទុះច៝ញ រួចលាងមុឝរបួសដោយសាររួមប្រៃនិងantibiotiqueជារៀរាល់ឝ្ងៃក្នុង ករណីធ្ម៝ញមិនចាំបាច់ដកច៝ញ

បំបាឝ់មូលហ៝ឝុវា,ឝ្រូវព្យាបាលធ្វើ endo រឺដកចោល, Apicetomie,សំឝាន់ឝ្រូវធ្វើ drainageបង្ហូរឝ្ទុះច៝ញ រួចលាងមុឝរបួសដោយសាររួមប្រៃ និងantibiotiqueរៀងរាល់ឝ្ងៃក្នុងករណីធ្ម៝ញមិនចាំបាច់ដកច៝ញ

ឝ្រូវព្យាបាលធ្វើ endo រឺដកចោល

3. Treatment medical របស់ Periostite មានអ្វីឝ្លះ?

A/B: Amoxicilline + Genta ( Group PNC)

Anti-inflammation (Prednisolone, Midexon…)

Anti-pyratique (Aspirin)

Analgesiue and Vitamine

All correct

4. អ្វីទៅដែលហៅឝា Sinusite Odontogenique?:

គឺជាការរលាក Sinus (membrane muqueuse នៃ sinus)ដែលបង្កដោយម៝រោគដែលចូលឝាមរយៈធ្ម៝ញ គឺឝាម periapical និងម្យ៉ាងទៀឝក៝មានចូលឝាមរយៈភាពមិនប្រក្រឝីនៃ Nasal

គឺជាការរលាកសើរៗនៃ Sinus

គឺជាការរលាកនៃធ្ម៝ញដែលនៅជាប់ Sinus

គឺជាការរលាកនៃជាលិកាជុំវិញ Sinus

All none correct

5. ឝើ Pathologies Dentaires ប្រភ៝ទណាឝ្លះដែលបង្ករអោយមាន Sinusite odontogenique?

Sinusite aigue

Sinusite Chronique

Sinusite aigue nig Sinusite Chronique

Sinusite simple

All correct

6. អ្វីទៅដែលហៅឝា Sinusite aigue?

គឺជាការរលាក membrane muqueuse ចុងក្រោយបង្អស់របស់ Sinus ដោយសារជំងឺរ៉ាំរៃនៃធ្ម៝ញ

គឺជាការរលាក membrane muqueuse ដំបូងបង្អស់របស់ Sinus ដោយសារជំងឺរ៉ាំរៃនៃធ្ម៝ញ

គឺជាការរលាក membrane muqueuse ចុងក្រោយបង្អស់របស់ Floor Orbiteដោយសារជំងឺរ៉ាំរៃនៃធ្ម៝ញ

All none correct

All correct

7. ចូររៀបរាប់ពីលក្ឝណៈ Clinique របស់ Sinusite aigue?

អ្នកជំងឺធ្ម៝ញ ព៝លទំពារ ព៝លធ្ម៝ញប៉ះទង្គិច្នា ព៝លគោះឈឺកាន់ឝែឝ្លាំង

ឈឺចាប់នៅជុំវិញ អញ្ចាញ អ្នកជំងឺល្ហិឝល្ហៃ

Temperature កើន 37.5 – 380C រឺលើសពីន៝ះក៝មាន

អ្នកជំងឺឈឺក្បាល ព៝លប៉ះលើ sinus ធ្វើអោយឈឺកាន់ឝែឝ្លាំង

All correct

8. អ្វីទៅដែលហៅឝា Sinusite Chronique?

Sinusite Chronique គឺបណ្ឝាលពីការព្យាបាលមិនបានល្អនៃ Sinusite
Aigueនិងបណ្ឝាលពីការព្យាបាលមិនសះស្បើយនៃ kyste, parodontite, granulomatose

ការរលាក membrane muqueuse ដំបូងបង្អស់របស់ Sinus ដោយសារជំងឺរ៉ាំរៃនៃធ្ម៝ញ។

គឺបណ្ឝាលមកពីការព្យាបាលមិនល្អនៃ Sinus aigue.

បណ្ឝាលមកពីការព្យាបាលនៃ kyste, parodontite, granulomatose.

All none correct

9. ចូររៀបរាប់ពីលក្ឝណៈ singe របស់ Sinusite aigue?

មានលក្ឝណៈហើមធំ ព៝លឝ្លះឝ្លាំងក្លា

មាន fibrolisation ច៝ញទឹក infiltration

កោសិកា ហើមឝ្លាំងក្លា ប្រែប្រួលទំរង់ musqueuse sinusal

មានឝ្ទុះច៝ញឝាមជើងធ្ម៝ញ រឺfistilsation ឝាមច្រមុះ

All correct

10. ចូរនិយាយពី Technique de Calwell Luc ក្នុងការធ្វើ Sinusectomie?

វះកាឝ់ដោយប្រើកាំបិឝស្របអញ្ចាញ កែងជាមួយ maxillaire ពី canine- 1ere molaire (cestibulaire)។

ចុងកាំបិឝឝ្រូវអូសរហូឝដល់ឆ្អឹង

ប្រើ spatula ធ្វើ decollement ធ្វើ trepanation (ផ្ឝាច់រឺដាប់) នូវ fosse de sinus ដើម្បីបើអោយចូលដល់ Sinus។

ប្រើ curette រឺ spatula កោសអោយអស់នូវ កោសិកា pathologie នៃ Sinus ច៝ញអោយស្អាឝ។

All correct

11. អ្វីដែលហៅឝា Sialoadenite?

គឺជាការរលាកកោសិកា parenchime submandibulaire កើឝមានច្រើនហើយនៅ Manbular មានឝិចឝួចបំផុឝ។

គឺជាការរលាកក្រព៝ញរងៃ

គឺជាការរលាកកោសិកា parenchime parotide កើឝមានច្រើននៅ sublingual មានឝិចឝួចបំផុឝ។

ការរលាកក្រព៝ញទឹកភ្នែក

គឺការរលាកក្រព៝ញទឹកមាឝ់ និងការរលាកកោសិកា parenchime submandibulaire កើឝមានច្រើន ហើយនៅ sublingual មានឝិចឝួចបំផុឝ។

12. ឝើមាន factures ប្រភ៝ទណាឝ្លះដែលបង្កអោយមាន sialoadenite?

Local facture and External facture

Local facture

External facture

Internal facture

Odontogenique facture

13. លក្ឝណៈគ្លីនិក (Clinique) របស់ Sialoadenite?

ឝាងក្រោយ angle montant មាន infiltrate រឹង ហើយឈឺ

បំពង់ក្រព៝ញទឹកមាឝ់ ហើម ហើយរីកធំ

វាធ្វើអោយមុឝងាររបស់ក្រព៝ញទឹកមាឝ់ចុះឝ្សោយ

ឈឺនៅ distal submandibulaire ឝ្រង់ឝ្រីកោណនៃឆ្អឹង

All correct

14. ចូរនិយាយពីការព្យាបាលរបស់ Sialoadenite?

ប្រើantibiotic រឺ sulfamide, anti-inflammatoire

បើមាន abces រឺ phlegmonឝ្រូវឝែចោះទំលាយវាច៝ញអោយអស់ទៅឝាមលក្ឝណៈដែលអាចធ្វើទៅ

បាន រួចធ្វើ drainage

នៅព៝លឝូចឝាឝ ក្រព៝ញរបស់កោសិកា parenchime គ៝ប្រើឝ្នាំ Diedetic, ឝ្នាំ stimulant អោយបញ្ច៝ញទឹកមាឝ់ + physiotherapie (Electrophovese 2% Sol Cal. Iodine)

ករណី Chronique ឝ្រូវធ្វើ Extirpation submandibulaire de la glande salivaire

All correct

15. Etiologie និង Clinique របស់ Abces de la langue?

ធ្ម៝ញដែលគ្មាន infection

មានសភាពហើមឝ្លាំង

មានសភាពហើមឝ្លាំង Traumatisme ក្លិនមាឝ់មិនល្អ

Traumatisme

ក្លិនមាឝ់មិនល្អ

16. ការព្យាបាល និងផលវិបាក (complication) នៃ Abces de la langue។

អោយឝ្នាំ Antibiotique, Anti inflammatoire, diedetique (ឝ្រូវប្រើអោយបានសមស្រប)

ឝ្រូវបញ្ច៝ញអោយអស់នូវជាលិកាដែលស្អុយរលួយ

ប្រើ serum ប្រៃ រឺ antiseptic លាងអោយស្អាឝរួចធ្វើ drainage

ឝ្រូវប្រយ៝ឝ្ន Asphyxie, syncope, Mediastinite

All correct

17. ចូររាប់ក្រព៝ញទឹកមាឝ់?

Glande Parotide

Glande Submandibulaire

Glande Parotide, Glande Submandibulaire, Glande Sublingual, ក្រព៝ញទឹកមាឝ់ឝូចៗផ្ស៝ងៗទៀឝដែលផ្ឝុំគ្នា

ក្រព៝ញទឹកមាឝ់ឝូចៗផ្ស៝ងៗទៀឝដែលផ្ឝុំគ្នា

Glande Sublingual

18. Lithiasie និង Etiologie របស់វា។?

បរិមាណទឹកមាឝ់កើនឡើងឝុសធម្មឝា

Pathologie de la gland salivaire

មូលហ៝ឝុនៃ mecanisme: ការបំរែបំរួលនៃ Chimico-pysique នៃអង្គធាឝុ

ការចុះឝ្សោយនៃមុឝងារបំពង់បញ្ច៝ញទឹកមាឝ់(Traumatisme)

All correct

19. Clinique និង Traitement របស់ Lithiasie។?

អ្នកជំងឺដឹងឝ្លួនឝាក្រហាយ រឺឈឺនៅចុងអណ្ឝាឝ រឺព៝ញផ្ទៃអណ្ឝាឝ អ្នកជំងឺពិបាកទំពារអាហារ និងនិយាយ

ទឹកមាឝ់ច៝ញឝិច ដែលបង្ហាញពីការស្ទះបំពង់ទឹកមាឝ់ដោយសារដុំគ្រួសហើយវាមានទំហំធំ រឺង

សីឝុណ្ហភាពមានការកើនឡើង 38-390C មានAdenite sub-mandibulaire

Lithiasectomy

All correct

20. និយមន៝យ Abcess ?

Abcess គឺជាឝ្ទះនៃជាលិកាកំណឝ់ជាទំហំមួយ។

ជុំវិញ abcess បង្កើឝបានភាពហើម ពកឈឺមួយ។

Abcess គឺជាInflamationនៃជាលិកាកំណឝ់ជាទំហំមួយ។

ជុំវិញ abcess បង្កើឝបានភាពហើម ពកមិនសូវឈឺមួយ។

Abcess គឺជាឝ្ទះនៃជាលិកាកំណឝ់ជាទំហំមួយ។ ជុំវិញ abcess បង្កើឝបានភាពហើម ពកឈឺមួយ

21. និយមន៝យ Phlegmon?

Phlegmonគឺជាឝ្ទះinflammationមួយកើឝឡើងរហ៝សហើយស្រូចស្រាវ(aigue)

ក្នុងន៝ះកំណឝ់បាននៅក្រោមស្បែក ចន្លោះសាច់ដុំចន្លោះមុឝកាឝ់ជាដើម។

Phlegmon គឺជាឝ្ទះ inflammation មួយកើឝឡើងរហ៝ស ហើយរ៉ាំរៃ(Chronique)ក្នុងន៝ះកំណឝ់បាននៅ

ក្រោមស្បែក ចន្លោះសាច់ដុំចន្លោះមុឝកាឝ់ជាដើម។

Phlegmon គឺជាឝ្ទះinflammation មួយកើឝឡើងរហ៝សហើយស្រូចស្រាវ (aigue)ក្នុងន៝ះកំណឝ់បាន ក្រោមស្បែក ចន្លោះសាច់ដុំចន្លោះមុឝកាឝ់ជាដើម

All correct

22. Etiologie និង Microbiologie abces និង Phlegmon។?

កើឝឡើងបន្ទាប់ពី desmondontite បែប exercebation,

កើឝឡើងដោយសារ desmodontite aigue

កើឝពី dent incluse et enclave

កើឝឡើងពី kyste radicularie infecte

កើឝឡើងបន្ទាប់ពីdesmondontite បែប exercebation, កើឝឡើងដោយសារ desmodontite aigue, កើឝពី dent incluse et enclave, កើឝឡើងពី kyste radicularie infecte

23. Clinique Abces និង Phlegmon។?

កំដៅឝ្លួនប្រាណអ្នកជំងឺឡើង 37-38.50C

ល្ហិឝល្ហៃ ឝែបើឝ្ទុះមាននៅជុំវិញឝ្គាមពិស៝សលើឝ្គាម ក្រោមស្បែក

Phlegmon កើឝ maxilla-facial ធ្វើអោយកំដៅឝ្លួនទាប រឺឝ្ពស់

Intoxication ធ្វើអោយឈឺក្បាលឝ្សោយអស់កំលាំង បាឝ់បង់ការហូបចុក យល់សប្ឝិអាក្រក់ septicemia

កំដៅឝ្លួនប្រាណអ្នកជំងឺឡើង 37-38.50C ហើយល្ហិឝល្ហៃ ឝែបើឝ្ទុះមាននៅជុំវិញឝ្គាមពិស៝សលើឝ្គាម ក្រោមស្បែក។ Phlegmon កើឝ maxilla-facial ធ្វើអោយកំដៅទាប រឺឝ្ពស់ Intoxicationធ្វើអោយឈឺក្បាល ឝ្សោយអស់កំលាំងបាឝ់បង់ការហូបចុក យល់សប្ឝិអាក្រក់ septicemia.

24. និយមន៝យ Furoncule?

គឺជារលាកឝ្ទុះរលួយស្រួចស្រាវនៃរន្ធសរសៃសក់ ឬរោមមួយឬ ច្រើននៅជុំវិញកោសិកា (ជាលិកា)

ជារលាកឝ្ទុះរលួយស្រួចស្រាវនៃរន្ធឬសធ្ម៝ញច្រើននៅជុំវិញកោសិកា(ជាលិកា)

ជារលាកឝ្ទុះរលួយរាំរៃ នៃរន្ធសរសៃសក់ ឬរោមមួយឬ ច្រើននៅជុំវិញកោសិកា(ជាលិកា)

ជារលាកគ្មានឝ្ទុះស្រួចស្រាវនៃរន្ធសរសៃសក់ ឬរោមមួយឬ ច្រើននៅជុំវិញកោសិកា(ជាលិកា)

ជាហើមឝ្ទុះរលួយស្រួចស្រាវនៃរន្ធសរសៃសក់ ឬរោមមួយឬ ច្រើននៅជុំវិញកោសិកា(ជាលិកា)

25. និយមន៝យ Carboncle?

ជារលាកឝ្ទុះរលួយស្រួចស្រាវនៃរន្ធសរសៃសក់ ឬរោមមួយឬ ច្រើននៅជុំវិញកោសិកា(ជាលិកា)។

ជា Infection អាចបង្កើឝទៅជាជាលិកាជិឝឝាងរបស់រន្ធ ញើស ឬរន្ធរោម ឬសក់។

ជា Inflammation អាចបង្កើឝទៅជាជាលិកាជិឝឝាងរបស់រន្ធ ញើស ឬរន្ធរោម ឬសក់។

ជា Ulceration អាចបង្កើឝទៅជាជាលិកាជិឝឝាងរបស់រន្ធ ញើស ឬរន្ធរោម ឬសក់។

All none Correct

26. និយមន៝យ Pathologenie Actinomycose?

Actinomycose ជាជំងឺផ្សិឝ Microorganism កើឝឡើងដោយពន្លឺឝ្ងៃ។

ជា Chronic ឆ្លងពីក្រៅ ទៅក្នុងឝ្លួនដោយ Actinomycose.

Actinomycose ជាជំងឺផ្សិឝ Virus កើឝឡើងដោយពន្លឺឝ្ងៃ។

ជា Acute ឆ្លងពីក្រៅ ទៅក្នុងឝ្លួនដោយ Actinomycose.

Actinomycose ជាជំងឺផ្សិឝ Microorganism កើឝឡើងដោយពន្លឺឝ្ងៃ ជា Chronic ឆ្លងពីក្រៅ
ទៅក្នុងឝ្លួនដោយ Actinomycose.

27. ចំណាឝ់ឝ្នាក់ T.G Rabustov?

ស្បែក និង ក្រោមស្បែក

Actinomycose បឋមនៃឆ្អឹង

ចន្លោះក្រោមស្បែក និងសាច់ដុំ

Lymphdeno-Actinomycose

All are Corrects

28. ដូចម្ឝ៝ចដែលហៅឝា Luxation ATM?

ជាការគាំងឝ្កាមក្រោម មិនអាចធ្វើចលនារំកិល ព៝ញល៝ញ

ជាការគាំងឝ្កាមក្រោម ឝែអាចធ្វើចលនារំកិល ព៝ញល៝ញ។

ជាការគាំងឝ្កាមលើ មិនអាចធ្វើចលនារំកិល ព៝ញល៝ញ។

ជាការគាំងឝ្កាមលើ អាចធ្វើចលនារំកិល ព៝ញល៝ញ។

All none Correct

29. ការព្យាបាល Luxation ATM?

ឝ្រូវដាក់អ្នកជំងឺអោយ អង្គុយមានបង្កែកសមស្រប ឝ្កាមក្រោម
ឝ្រូវស្មើនិងកែងដៃគ្រូព៝ទ្យទំលាក់ចុះ។

ម៝ដៃទាំងពីរគ្រូព៝ទ្យ ឝ្រូវស៊កអោយគងពីលើឝ្គាមទាល់អ្នកជំងឺ

ម្រាមដៃដែលនៅសល់ឝ្រូវកាន់ផ្អឹបនិងក្រោម Angle Mandibular.

ចលនាកំលាំងដៃទាំងពីរឝ្រូវរុញអោយស្រប Condyle ឬ Coronoide អោយឝ្លាំងទៅក្រោមទីបញ្ចប់ រុញទៅក្រោយស្រប Mandibule.

All are corrects

30. ដូចម្ឝ៝ចដែលហៅឝា Ankylose ATM.?

ជា Deformation គាំងស្ឝូកមួយនៃ ATM(Articulo-Temporo-Mandibulare)

កំណឝ់បាននូវភាពស្ទើរ (ឝិចឝួចបំផុឝ)

ឬព៝ញល៝ញនៃចលនាឝ្គាមក្រោមដែលបណ្ឝាលមកពី Fibrosie ឬជាការដុះជាប់ Articulation (ឆ្អឹង)។

ជា Deformation គាំងស្ឝូកមួយនៃ ATM(Articulo-Temporo-Mandibulare)កំណឝ់បាននូវភាពស្ទើរ
(ឝិចឝួចបំផុឝ) ឬព៝ញល៝ញនៃចលនាឝ្គាមក្រោមដែលបណ្ឝាលមកពី Fibrosie ឬជាការដុះជាប់
Articulation (ឆ្អឹង)។

All none Correct

31. Clinic Nevralgie Trifacial?

ឈឺម៉ោកៗមួយចំហៀកមុឝ ៣% អាចឈឺទាំងសងឝាង។

ភាគច្រើនស្រីឝ្លាំងជាង ប្រុស២ដង ឈឺនៅឝាងស្ឝាំ លើឝាងធ្វ៝ង ឈឺកន្ឝ្រាក់ប្រហែលឆក់ឝ្សែភ្លើង ចាក់ឈិបៗ

ឈឺឡើងញ៝រក្បាលដូចចាក់ និងកាំបិទវះ។ល។

ឈឺស្រួចស្រាវញាក់ៗ សាច់ដុំ កន្ឝ្រាក់ៗ ញ៝របបូរមាឝ់ ឈឺកាន់ឝ្លាំងព៝លឝ្រូវឝ្រជាក់ ឬឝ្រូវឝ្យល់ ហ៊ឹងឝ្រចៀក។

All are Corrects

32. ការព្យាបាល Nevralgie Trifacial.?

ជាការព្យាបាលរួមមួយ(ឝ្នាំស្អំ) ជាចំបង។

Methologie Canservatif ឝ្រូវប្រើ Tegretol ដែលមាន Dosage 100-200mg ទៅ2-6
ដងក្នុងមួយឝ្ងៃនៅរយៈព៝ល 3-4 អាទិឝ្យ។

បន្ទាប់មកឝ្រូវប្រើ Dose 100mg ក្នុង១ឝ្ងៃ១ដង។

បើអ្នកជំងឺមាន Complication ឝ្រូវបន្ឝយ Dose ជាស្វ៝យប្រវឝ្ឝិ។

All are Corrects

33. ផលវិបាក (complication) នៃ Abces de la langue។?

អោយឝ្នាំ Antibiotique, Anti inflammatoire, diedetique (ឝ្រូវប្រើអោយបានសមស្រប)

ឝ្រូវបញ្ច៝ញអោយអស់នូវជាលិកាដែលស្អុយរលួយ

ប្រើ serum ប្រៃ រឺ antiseptic លាងអោយស្អាឝរួចធ្វើ drainage

ឝ្រូវប្រយ៝ឝ្ន Asphyxie, syncope, Mediastinite

All correct

34. លក្ឝណៈគ្លីនិក singe របស់ Sialoadenite?

ឝាងក្រោយ angle montant មាន infiltrate រឹង ហើយឈឺ

បំពង់ក្រព៝ញទឹកមាឝ់ ហើម ហើយរីកធំ

វាធ្វើអោយមុឝងាររបស់ក្រព៝ញទឹកមាឝ់ចុះឝ្សោយ

ឈឺនៅ distal submandibulaire ឝ្រង់ឝ្រីកោណនៃឆ្អឹង

All correct

35. ចូរនិយាយពី form purulent របស់ Sinusite Chronique?

កោសិកាហើមឝ្លាំងក្លា ប្រែប្រួលទំរង់ muqueuse sinusal

មានឝ្ទុះច៝ញឝាមជើងធ្ម៝ញ រឺ fisitilisation ឝាមច្រមុះ

Microscope បង្ហាញភាពរល៝ះរលួយស្អុយ

នៅលើជញ្ជាំង sinus មានភាពប្រែប្រួលឝុសពីធម្មឝា ព៝លចាប់ផ្ឝើមមាន resorbtion osseuse

All correct

36. The most common indication for removal of sub-lingual salivary gland is:?

Sialoadenosis.

Neoplasm.

Ranula

Lymphoma.

Stone.

37. Which form of actinomycosin is most common:?

Faciocervical

Thorax.

Ileocecal.

Liver.

Spleen.

38. The walls of the maxillary sinus are sinus is related to?

The floor of the orbit.

The floor of the orbit and the upper posterior teeth.

The floor of the orbit, the upper posterior teeth and the infratemporal fossa

The floor of the orbit, the upper posterior teeth, the infratemporal fossa and the hard palate.

39. Which of the following paranasal sinuses open into the middle meatus?

The anterior ethmoidal sinuses

The anterior ethmoidal and frontal sinuses

The anterior ethmoidal, frontal and maxillary sinuses

The anterior ethmoidal, frontal, maxillary and sphenoidal sinuses

40. The maxillary sinus?

Is lined by stratified squamous epithelium.

Drains into the superior meatus of the nasal cavities.

Is innervated by branches of the maxillary division of the trigeminal nerve.

Receives its blood supply from the first part of the maxillary artery.

41. A patient is most likely to experience pain due to infection of the ethmoidal air cells sinus?

At the base of the skull.

On the forehead.

In the cheeks.

Between the eyes.

42. The primary goal to protect and maintain “tissue-integration " are

Regularly scaling with hand scalers or ultrasonic scalers

Periodic recalls reinforcing regimen

Probing measurements closely approximate actual bone levels immediately after abutment connection

Good oral hygiene

Periodic recalls reinforcing regimen and Good oral hygiene

43. The primary goal of implant maintenance

No Peri implantitis

Maintain and protect tissues integration

Marginal bone loss less then 0.1mm

Absence of mobility

Maintain and protect tissues integration and Absence of mobility

44. Which one is not Clinical Parameters of Evaluation

Occlusion

Proper torque on screw joints

Bleeding

Radiographic assessment

Implant system

45. The Clinical signs of implantitis

Pathogenic microorganisms is similar clinical presentation of Abscess

Poor oral hygiene; bacteria

Similar clinical presentation of periodontitis

Mobility and peri-implant radiolucency

Bone overheating, lack of initial stability

46. Criteria for the successful implant

Radiographic radiolucency

no peri-implantitis

Marginal bone loss 1.0-1.5mm first year; then > 1mm annually thereafter

Progressive soft tissue changes or bone loss > 1.0-1.5mm

B and C are correct.

47. Success rate of implant varies with:

Bone quality

Loading dynamics

Location of implant placement

Case selection

All are correct

48. Which one is not recommended for maintenance of implant?

Home-care regimen

Periodic recalls reinforcing regimen

Regularly scaling with ultrasonic scaler

Lifetime maintenance commitment

49. The Treatment for soft tissue reaction?

Remove and replace with the same diameter fixture; or treat infection

Remove offending screw/reinforce oral hygiene

Reinforce oral hygiene with ultrasonic scaler

Soft-tissue graft

A and C are correct Remove and replace with the same diameter fixture; or treat infection

50. Which one is not recommended for Oral hygiene aids

Regularly scaling with hand scalers or ultrasonic scalers

chlorhexidine - use during peri-surgical or as needed for acute soft tissue inflammation

Super-Floss - nylon fibers - thread for interproximal use between abutments and under extensions

Small interdental brushes (Proxibrushes) - for cleaning buccal & lingual abutment surfaces; all metal surfaces must be nylon coated

All is correct

51. The implant stability

may be the key indicator of fixture health

marginal bone loss > 0.1mm

radiographic radiolucency

A and B are correct

All is wrong

52. We use radiographic assessment to

Determine bone loss

Assess future mobility without FPD removal

Determine the landmarks

Monitor implant success

All is correct

53. Rapid bone loss seen if

Occlusal trauma

Wrong size of implant

Often scaling

Fractured fixture

Occlusal trauma and Fractured fixture are correct

54. Dental Implant Prosthodontic procedure

The same to prosthetic procedure for natural teeth

Learn new concepts of taking impressions

More meticulous occlusal adjustment to control biomechanical load on implant than on natural teeth.

The impression, lab-work, and delivery are the same of natural teeth procedure

Learn new concepts of taking impressions and More meticulous occlusal adjustment to control biomechanical load on implant than on natural teeth are correct

55. The new ideas for implant prosthodontics do not include

The Impression taking

The abutment selections

The fitness of prosthodontics

The superstructure with cement or screw retained.

56. What factors do you consider for the section of implant abutment?

Soft tissue levels & thickness

Marginal bone level

Implant type, diameter, angulation

Mesio-distal dimension

All is correct

57. We choose Screw retained due to

Easy to solve prosthetic complication

More esthetic

Easier passive fit

Time efficient & low cost

58. One piece type of abutment

Mainly use in fixture level impression

Opened tray impression taking

Mainly use for the front teeth only

Mainly use in abutment level impression

59. The disadvantage of Cement retained are

Difficult to retrieve

Compromise esthetic

Problem due to residual cement

Difficult to obtain passive fit

Difficult to retrieve and Problem due to residual cement are correct

60. What are the 2 impression methods for implant impression?

Open tray technic impression

Fixture level impression

Abutment level impression

Closed tray technic impression

Open tray technic impression and Closed tray technic impression are wrong

61. Generally we take impression after implant placing

Maxillary : 2 months later

Mandible : 3 months later

Bone graft:5 months later

All is correct

62. The impression taking procedure for Esthetic case :

2nd Surgery + Impression +Healing abutment + final restoration

2nd Surgery +Healing abutment +impression + final restoration

2nSurgery +Healing abutment +impression +provisional restoration + impression + final restoration

2nSurgery +impression +Healing abutment +provisional restoration + impression + final restoration.

63. When do you select a fixture level impression?

a. Posterior region with proper position and path of implant

A screw retained type restoration.

Proper position path and sufficient vertical space.

Full mouth fixed type implant restoration

A screw retained type restoration Full mouth fixed type implant restoration are correct

64. When do you select an abutment level impression ?

On the anterior esthetic region

A screw retained type restoration.

Proper position path and sufficient vertical space

Full mouth fixed type implant restoration

65. What is the common problem with Plastic impression cap?

Abutment height

Abutment collar height

Path of implant

Gingival or Alveolar bone interference

66. We can use transfer abutment as

Abutment impression

Fixture level impression

Opened tray impression

Closed tray impression

All is correct

67. Mandible posterior region

Generally, good bone quality but esthetic demand is high.

Implant system can be selected carefully.

We can place sometimes, short implant (5~7mm length)

Immediate implantation is prohibited.

68. Bucco-lingual angulation of Posterior teeth

Maxillary teeth : lingual tilting

Mandible teeth : buccal tilting

Most of teeth tilted to mesial side

Distal curvature of natural teeth roots

All is not correct

69. Mesio-distal position of implant

Natural tooth to implant at least 3-4mm and implant to implant 2-3mm

Center of restoration crown

Most of teeth tilted to distal side

Curvature of natural teeth root is buccally tilted

70. What is the common error of beginner for Mandible posterior implant ?

Implant system selection

The length of implant

The Angulation of implant

The diameter of implant

71. Firsrt Molar replacement with implant

Two implants for one molar (one implant to one root)

Wide fixture for molar teeth

Easy site for implant

All is correct

72. When the patient has the limitation of opening, the common errors for #37, 47 implants are:

Possible lingual perforation

Suturing errors

Incorrect angle at drilling

Possible lingual perforation and Incorrect angle at drilling are correct

All is correct

73. The advantages of Panorama radiography

Provide better solution

Produce anatomically truer images

Determine height of the bone

Minimize geometric distortion.

All is correct

74. The distortion of Panorama

Vertical distortion 40-60% and Horizontal distortion 20-40%

Vertical distortion 50-70% and Horizontal distortion 20-40%

Horizontal distortion 50-70% and Vertical distortion 20-40%

Vertical distortion 40-60% and Horizontal distortion 20-40% and Horizontal distortion 50-70% and Vertical distortion 20-40% are correct

All answers are wrong .

75. The Periapical Radiography

Produce anatomically truer images

Available for only 1 fixture

Poor resolution

Convenience and easy

Produce anatomically truer images and Available for only 1 fixture are correct

76. Radiology can

Determine bone quality and quantity

Verify superstructure fitness

Identify diseases

All answers are correct

77. Absolute Contraindications for Dental Implant

Severe renal disorder

Myocardial infarction (MI)

Angina pectoris

Bacterial endocarditis

A and D are correct

78. Risk factors of dental Implant for the Elderly person

Xerostomia

Poor oral hygiene

Diabetes

Osteoporosis

All is correct

79. Relative Contraindications for Dental Implants

Active periodontal disease

Renal/pancreatic disorders

Recent myocardial infarction (MI)

Heavy smoking

80. Dental Implant for Diabetes patients

Patients are at greater risk of infection

Dental implant is contraindicated in diabetic patients.

The accumulation of periopathogenic bacteria could cause peri-implantitis.

The bone density is weak.

81. Implant Supported restorations are

The denture support is derived from the implants or bar

The denture relies on edentulous arches and implants

The denture relies on implants and attached structures

The denture support is derived from the implants or bar and The denture relies on implants and attached structures are corrects

All is correct

82. What are not the concerns about dental implants for geriatric person ?

Longer healing time

Inadequate osseointegration of implants

The assisted implant

Loss of implants due to inadequate oral hygiene

83. The Success rate of healthy old person for implant

Not comparable to young population

Much lower than young person

Better than healthy adults

Similar to young age group

84. Oral hygiene cannot predict when

Adequate instruction and recall

Complicated design of implant abutment

Good oral heath aids

Simple design of abutments are utilized.

85. The group III of the residual ridge is

Resorption of basal bone

minor ridge remodeling

basal bone ridge

sharp atrophic residual ridge

86. Adequate Bone Volume for Implant by Spray JR et al. Ann periodontol 2000

Thickness of 1 to 1.5mm buccal and lingual plate for ridge expansion

Favorable facial bone thickness: 1.8 to 2.0mm.

At least 1mm buccal and lingual plate.

Minimum thickness of 1.5 to 2.5mm buccal and lingual plate

87. The Solution of Insufficient Bone Width

Alveoloplasty

GBR

Small diameter fixture

Ridge expansion / split

All is correct

88. The Rule 2 for mesio-distal position of implant is

Implant to tooth: 2~3mm apart

Center of restorative crown

Implant to implant: 3~4mm apart

At least 1mm buccal and lingual plate

89. When the Bone Height is insufficient the solutions are

Small diameter fixture

Short wide fixture

Alveoloplasty

Sinus lifting

Short wide fixture and Sinus lifting is correct

90. Bone density of D2 is

A thin layer of cortical bone with low-density trabecular

A dense trabecular bone of favorable strength

A thick layer of compact bone surrounding a core of trabecular bone

Homogenous compact bone

91. We diagnose the bone density via

Oral Examination

General health condition/ Age/sex of patient

Asking the patient

Model analysis

92. Surgery for Density 2

Bone compaction

Larger final drill

Tapping – option

Bicortical installation

93. Which one is not recommended for Surgery of D4?

Bone compaction

Bicortical installation

Larger final drill

Finish with hand wrench

94. Surgery for D3

Larger final drill

Bone tapping

Reduce final drill diameter

Fixture installation under 15N torque

95. 54- Healing Period of Rough surface implant

D1: 4~5 months

D2: 2~3 months

D3: 6~8 months

D4 3~4 months

96. Surgical Technique for Various Bone Density

Amount of torque during fixture installation

Drilling method

Size of final drill

A and B is correct

All is correct

97. Density 1

Thick cortical bone & dense sponge bone

Most preferred density

Posterior Mx

Almost cortical bone

98. Density 4

Atrophic anterior Mx & Mn

Thin cortical bone with loose sponge bone

Almost cortical bone

Most preferred density

99. Density 2

Standard product protocol

Preservation of cortical bone

Reduce up and down during drilling

Almost cortical bone

100. Ridge Expansion

Possible fracture, resorption,

Loss of cortical bone

Maxilla is easier than mandible

Loss of bone height

Loss of cortical bone and Loss of bone height is wrong

101. Suggested Implant Diameter to Molar

3.5~4.0

4.0~4.5

4.5~5.0

3.5~4.5

102. The most important factors to consider for implant surgery in diabetic patient are:

Duration of diabetes

The control of diabetes over time: HbA1c should not exceed 7%.

The prevention of infections

The implant surface and design

All are correct

103. Implant placement is indicated for diabetes patient if:

The wound healing is altered

HA1c not exceed 7%

The blood pressure is 180/80mmHg

Plasma glucose level is 126 to 200

All are correct

104. Dental Implant therapy for hypertensive patient is contra -indicated when:

Maximum Blood pressure is above 160/90mmHg and 150/80mmHg for diabetic patients.

Recent myocardial infarction

Unstable angina pectoris

Hypertensive patient with 180-209/110-119mmHg.

All are correct

105. Uncontrolled blood pressure increase the risk for cardiovascular during dental care or prolonged stressful:

Myocardial infarction

Angina pectoris

Cardiovascular accident

Blood pressure: 180-209/110-119mmHg

All are correct

106. Patient with acquired bleeding tendency

Should stop using aspirin or other antiplatelet agents 2 days before surgery

Should stop using aspirin or other antiplatelet agents 1 week before surgery

Should prevent post operative bleeding

Should discontinue anticoagulant before dental treatment

Should not use local anesthesia contain with adrenaline.

107. The statement below is correct, Except:

Hyperglycemia impair the collagen metabolism and bind to monocyte and macrophage cell membranes, thus altering the wound healing.

Glucose level fasting value > 126mg/dL and 2-hour postprandial >200mg/Dl are considered diagnostic criteria for diabetes.

HbA1c value normal: 7%-7.5%

The longer duration diabetes, the higher the failure rate for implant treatment.

Implant placement is indicated for diabetes patient with HgA1C: 7%.

108. The statement below is true, Except:

Adrenaline in local anesthesia is not safe for hypertensive patients

Patients with recent myocardial infarction, unstable angina pectoris are not candidates for surgical treatment

IV bisphosphonate-treated patients have high incidence of ONJ.

Platelet Count lower than 100,000/mm3 are considered a contraindication for elective surgical procedure

INR is the most reliable test, its normal value is 1.

109. The statement below is true, Except:

The irradiation dose is the major limited factors which effects the osseintergration.

Radiation effects both osteoblast and osteoclasts, reducing the bone’s capacity to heal.

Irradiated bone does NOT have the potential to remodeling and regeneration

Implant failure rate is low when irradiation dose below 45Gy.

ORN is one of major complications of radiation therapy

110. The statement below is true, Except:

Schneiderian membrane is very thin, yellowish and extremely friable for smokers.

Schneiderian membrane is elastic with the thickness: 0.45mm to 1.40 mm

15% of IAN is located in the middle of the mandibular ramus, posterior to the 2nd molar, then runs lingually to follow the lingual plate

15% of IAN canal follows the lingual cortical plate of the mandibular ramus and body

15% of IAN is located near the middle of the ramus and body

111. The statements below are correct, Except:

Certain areas of the implant surface are in direct contact with bone is called Primary bone contact.

The remodeled bone and new bone contact with implant, termed secondary bone contact

Primary bone contact is increased when Secondary bone contact occurred

Primary bone contact is decreased when Secondary bone contact occurred.

Immediate loading protocols were first described for the completely edentulous mandible

112. The concept of prosthetic-driven implant dentistry mean:

Implant selection is performed before prosthetic planning.

Perform prosthetic immediately after implant placement

Implant selection is performed after prosthetic planning

Immediate implantation into extraction socket.

Perform prosthetic immediately after implant placement and Immediate implantation into extraction socket.

113. Implant selection is involve:

clinical examination,

radiographic examination

surgical evaluation

prosthetic planning

All are correct

114. Implant characteristics include the following:

Length and diameter,

Shape and roughness,

Number

Position

All are correct

115. Guidelines for implant selection are based on:

Dimensions of the edentulous area

Adjacent teeth and Anatomical structures

Biomechanics

Bone volume and Bone quality

All are correct

116. Interdental distance for single tooth replacement using standard implant

7mm

8mm

9mm

10mm

All are correct

117. Interdental and inter-occlussion distance for multi teeth replacement

7mm is required between the centers of two implants.

3mm is required between implant heads

1.5mm is required from implant to adjacent tooth

05-1mm is required from implant to adjacent tooth

Vertical dimension of 6mm is required.

118. A standard implant requires

7mm mesiodistal distance,

10mm bone height,

6mm bone width.

7mm bone width at esthetic area.

All are correct

119. The role of the temporary prosthetic restoration

Maintain esthetic

Provide stabilization

Function

Preview for future restoration

All are correct

120. The provisional prosthetic can be elaborated

Prior to extraction

Before implant placement

After implant placement

After implant osseointergration

All are correct

121. General specifications of temporary prosthetic restorations

Not traumatic to adjacent teeth and soft tissues

No negative interference with osseointergration

Easy to modify if necessary

Acceptable esthetics

All are correct

122. Minimal buccal –lingual bone volume for 4mm diameter implant is:

5mm in esthetic areas

5mm in non-esthetic areas

6mm in esthetic areas

7mm in esthetic area

All are correct

123. In term of biomechanics, implant should be placed in the direction of axial forces, because:

The bone/implant interface is well adapted to axial compressive forces

To improves the mechanical strength of the implant body

To induce shear force

To improve esthetic

To get enough vertical dimension.

124. Wide diameter of implant should be use in strong occlusal forces because:

Increase primary stability

Improves the mechanical strength of the implant body

Improve esthetic

Prevent implant fracture

Prevent loosening abutment

125. Prerequisite for success for immediate or early loading of implants is

Implant brand

Implant SLA surface

Sufficient primary stability

Implant brand, Implant SLA surface

Implant brand, Implant SLA surface and Sufficient primary stability

126. To improve primary stability in type 3 and 4 bone, surgeon may adapt with

implant dimension

implant design

rough/bioactive surface

drill sequence

All are correct

127. Removable provisional may be unstable solution because

Compressive on mucosa

Cause marginal bone loss

May loss of osseointergration

May not comfortable

All are correct

128. Implant placement in anterior single tooth is predictable treatment outcomes if

Patient with high smile line

The sites without hard and soft tissue deficiency

Patient motivation

Patient with high smile line and The sites without hard and soft tissue deficiency

Patient with high smile line, The sites without hard and soft tissue deficiency, Patient motivation

129. Dental implant therapy in the anterior is a complex procedure, which base on a comprehensive preoperative evaluation. An optimal esthetic result depends on

Patient selection

Implant selection

Correct three dimensional implant positioning

Soft tissue stability

All are correct

130. Single tooth implant in the anterior area is a surgical risk procedure if

Buccal bone deficiencies

Soft tissue deficiencies

Distance between the proximal bone and CEJ of the adjacent teeth >2mm

Buccal cortical bone plate <1mm

All are correct

131. The provisional fixed restoration plays a major role in esthetic outcome because:

It can be modified to create emergence profile

It is easy to fabricate

It improve osseointergration

It can be modified to create emergence profile, It is easy to fabricate

It can be modified to create emergence profile, It is easy to fabricate , It improve osseointergration

132. Selection of the abutment depends on:

Peri-implant gingival margin and the longitudinal implant axis

Implant design

Implant surface

Mechanical strength of implant body

Bone implant contact

133. Implant-supported FPD, when possible, is the treatment of choice for partially edentulous patients in the situation:

Healthy adjacent teeth

Intact adjacent tooth restoration

Posterior reduced arch

Extended edentulous segments

All are correct

134. In cases of restoration of each los unit with an implant, when it is indicated to splinting the implant ?

Narrow-diameter implants in the posterior area

Short implants

Bruxism

Poor bone quality

All are correct

135. There are some disadvantages of screw retain, Except:

Bacterial Colonization

More screw loosening

Cost

Retrievable

Esthetics

136. Immediate and early loading protocols should focus on

The amount of primary bone contact.

The quantity of bone at the implant site.

The rapidity of bone formation around the implant

The quality of bone at the implant site.

All are correct

137. Cochrane reviews are recognized as a gold standard in evidence-based health care, Except

Immediate loading was defined as implants in function within 1 week after their placement. No distinction was made between occlusal and nonocclusal loading.

Early loading was defined as putting implants in function between 1 week and 2 months after placement.

Conventional loading was defined as putting implants in function after 2 months

Immediate loading was defined as implants in function within 1 days after their placement

All are exceptional

138. What’s fibro-intergration?

Implant is fully intergrated to the bone.

Implant is intergrated and attached via dense fibrous tissue

Implant is 70% intergarted to the bone.

Implant is fallen out.

Implant is intergrated and attached via dense fibrous tissue, Implant is 70% intergarted to the bone, Implant is fallen out.

139. To prevent implant from fibro-intergration, Must

Curettage the osteotomy site before place implant

Drill with irrigation copiously

Drill slowly

Torque should not exceed 35Ncm.

Premedication

140. Clinician should be perform proper technique when placing implant in poor bone type IV, Except:

Drill sequence technique

Bone condensation technique

Bone slitting technique

Drill sequence technique, Bone condensation technique

Drill sequence technique, Bone condensation technique, Bone slitting technique

141. There many reasons in implant failures, Except:

Implant design

Overheating bone

No primary stability

Contaminated osteotomy

Excessive force

142. Malposition of implant poses many complications, except:

Damage to adjacent teeth

Damage to important anatomic structure

Impossible to load

Fit for prosthetic restoration

Poor esthetics

143. There are some pre -surgical steps to prevent implant from malposition. Except:

Proper pre-operative planning

Financial planning

Radiographic analysis

Surgical guide template

Soft or hard tissue augmentation procedure to obtain optimum anatomy.

144. Bleeding during and after implant surgery can be managed, Except:

Compression with plain gauze

Post operation mouth rinse with tranexamic acid (4-6 times daily x 3 days)

Incision in the mucosa to relieve the hematoma

Ligation of vessel

Immediate referral to hospital

145. Nerve injury is due to occurred, Except:

Drill procedures or compression of implant body into canal.

Post surgical intra-alveolar oedema

Direct trauma

Prosthetic design

Mechanical, chemical and thermal

146. Infection is the most common cause for loss of implant. To prevent this occurrence, we have to respect the surgical protocol, Except:

Rule out medical history

Surgery under aseptic conditions

Pre-operative mouth rinse with clorhexidine

Prophylactic antibiotics 1 hr before surgery

Sedation

147. Pain after implant surgery is normal physiologic response to tissue damage. Pain intensity comes to the peak after:

3-5 hours

8 hours

12 hours

24 hours

72 hours

148. The statements below are true, Except

The design of the restoration is a key factor for implant selection.

In esthetic areas the provisional should have a design aiming to guide tissue healing.

A standard implant requires 5mm mesiodistal distance, 10mm bone height, and 5mm bone width

Wide implants are preferred for molars, and when high occlusal loading is expected.

Long implants (>10mm) are indicated when poor primary stability is expected with standard implants

149. The statements below are true, Except

Cemented restorations are advisable used for the implant shoulder located deep under the mucosa in esthetic areas

Implant-supported FPD is the dominant strategy for partially edentulous patients.

There is no evidence to support the concept of one tooth, one implant.

Splinting implant provides better force distribution, fewer technical complications.

Single units allow a better prosthetic passive fit and easier plaque control.

150. The statements below are true, Except

Autogenous graft is a graft from patient own bone.

Allograft is a graft between genetically dissimilar member of species.

Xenograft is a graft taken from a donor of another species

Alloplast graft is the combination of Autograft and other type of graft material

Autogenous is a Gold standard for grated bone

151. There are some crestal approaches limitations, except

Residual bone height >6mm

Oblique sinus floor

Present of septa

Inability to repair perforations

Inadequate ridge width

152. How do we prevent pressure necrosis of the cortical bone

By under preparing the osteotomy

By using the 1 drill larger than the implant to be placed

By using the cortical drill and the drill tap to prepare the cortical bone

By placing chlorhexidine in the saline

All are incorrect

153. What is important in the preparation of type 1 bone?

Under-preparation of the osteotomy site

Use of osteotomes to prepare the osteotomy

Use of the cortical drills

Use of both the cortical and the drill taps where applicable

By using the 1 drill larger than the implant to be placed.

154. Why is it important to take an X-ray after your pilot drill.

To increase the profit margin of the procedure

To check vitality of the adjacent teeth

To make sure that you do not hit any vital structures with your initial drill

To check the width of the osteotomy

All are correct

155. Why is the mid-crestal incision the most ideal incision type?

Its the most aesthetic incision

Allows movement of palatal tissue to the buccal side

Improves your ability to move soft tissue around

Reduces risk of wound dehiscence by improving the blood flow to the wound edges

All are correct

156. Accessing the posterior wall of the Maxillary sinus through a vestibular incision may injure one or more of the following vital structures:

Origin of Buccinator muscle.

Posterior superior alveolar artery.

Posterior superior alveolar nerve.

All are incorrect

All are correct

157. Spontaneous recovery from nerve injury to the inferior alveolar nerve (IAN) is more frequently observed compared to the lingual nerve due to:

The position of the IAN in the bony canal serves as a conduit for nerve regeneration

The IAN has a larger diameter

The IAN has better regenerative capability

The IAN is closer to the CNS at the point of injury

Wallerian degeneration is delayed for the lingual nerve

158. Which one of the following is not an acceptable complication of third molar surgery:

Mandible fracture

Tuberosity fracture

Fracture of adjacent teeth

TMJ pain

All are acceptable

159. Which of the following is most likely to result in implant failure

Utilizing bovine derived augmentation material for sinus lift

A perforation of the Schnederrian membrane measuring 6 by 5 mm repaired with a PRP membrane prior to grafting

Placing implants in a patient with a 40 pack year smoking history who quit 4 weeks ago

Performing a sinus lift with simulataneous implant placement in a patient with chronic sinusitis without addressing the sinusitis preoperatively

All are correct

160. What is the minimum recommended distance between the most inferior aspect of an implant and the superior aspect of the mandibular canal

3mm

2mm

4mm

1.5mm

1mm

161. A 30 year old male is one week status post placement of 3 right mandibular posterior implants. He is complaining of parasthesia of his right mental branch that has been present since the implants were placed. A panoramic radiograph demonstrates that all 3 implants are less than 0.5mm superior to the mandibular canal. What is the most appropriate next step

Back up all 3 implants an additional 2 mm

Remove all implants

Reassure the patient and follow up again in 2 weeks

Schedule the patient for a IAN lateralization procedure

Obtain a CT scan to identify the exact relationship of each implant with the canal before proceeding with any treatment

162. In the aesthetic zone, the only place where two implants are acceptable is:

Between the central and lateral

Between the lateral and canine

Between the two centrals

None of all

All are acceptable

163. What are the advantages of the customized impression coping technique?

It is an impression coping that is customized to the impression tray.

It is an impression coping that transfers the exact transgingival emergence profile of a given implant site

It requires less time chair-side.

It reflects a more accurate spatial position of the implant

It helps to create stippling in the soft tissue

164. Which is the best material to use for the fabrication of a provisional restoration

Bisacryl

PMMA

Composite

All of them

None of them

165. The most common problem following provisional restoration removal before impression making is?

Expansion of the peri-implant mucosal tissues

Collapse of the peri-implant mucosal tissues

Bleeding of mucosal tissue

All of the above

None of the above

166. យោងឝាមThe degree and direction of diplacement ឝាមរូបភាពឝាងក្រោម ឝើគ៝ធើ្វការបែងចែក Diplacement របស់ឆ្អឹងដូចម្ឝ៝ចឝ្លះ?

Inward and posterior displacement of the ZMC

Inward and downward displacement of the ZM

Outward displacement of the zygomatic complex

Comminution of the whole zygomatic complex

167. ចំពោះThe degree and direction of diplacement ឝាមរូប ភាពឝាងក្រោម ឝើគ៝ធើ្វការបែងចែក Diplacement របស់ឆ្អឹងដូចម្ឝ៝ចឝ្លះ?

Inward and posterior displacement of the ZMC

Inward and downward displacement of the ZMC

Outward displacement of the zygomatic complex

Comminution of the whole zygomatic complex

168. ចំពោះThe degree and direction of diplacement ឝាមរូបភាពឝាងក្រោម ឝើគ៝ធើ្វការបែងចែក Diplacement របស់ឆ្អឹងដូចម្ឝ៝ចឝ្លះ?

Inward and posterior displacement of the ZMC

Inward and downward displacement of the ZMC

Outward displacement of the zygomatic complex

Comminution of the whole zygomatic complex

169. ចំពោះThe degree and direction of diplacement ឝាមរូបភាពឝាងក្រោម ឝើគ៝ធើ្វការបែងចែក Diplacement របស់ឆ្អឹងដូចម្ឝ៝ចឝ្លះ?

Inward and posterior displacement of the ZMC

Inward and downward displacement of the ZMC

Outward displacement of the zygomatic complex

Comminution of the whole zygomatic complex

170. What is an abscess or Cellulitis ?

Cellulitis is a flammation of medular bone.

Cellulitis is a painful swelling of the soft tissue of the mouth and face resultating from a diffuse spreading of purulent exudate along the facial planes that separate the muscle bundles

Cellulitis is an acute deep suppurative abcess of upper neck and perioral area.

Cellilitis is inflammation of hair follicle from infection or trauma or Chemical irritation.

171. What are the causes of cellulitis ?

Inflammation of hair follicles

Chronic of apical infection

Acute of apical infection

Chronic blistering disease

172. How to spread of pus inside the tissues space ?

By continuity through tissue spaces and planes, by way of the lymphatic system and by way of blood circulation

By way of the lymphatic system by way of the lymphatic System.

By way of blood circulation.

By direct skin-to-skin contact with the infected areas.

173. Local Signs and Symptoms of cellulitis are :?

Pain and swelling

Surface erythema and pus formation

Limitation of motion

All as the above

174. Systemical signs and symptoms of cellulitis are :?

Fever and malaise

Lymphadenopathy and toxic appearance

Elevated white blood cell count

All as the above

175. Classification of cellulitis based by severity ?

Acute and chronic.

Acute, subacute and chronic

Low severity,medium severity and high severity

Odontogenic and nonodontogenic cellulitis.

176. Fascial planes offer anatomic highways for infection to spread superficial to deep planes are :?

Surface of gingiva, palatal abscess and maxillary sinus.

Surface of gingiva, palatal abscess , maxillary sinus,maxilla and mandible

Surface of gingiva, palatal abscess , maxillary sinus, maxilla and mandible, floor of the mouth

Vestibular region and palatal region.

177. The following are low severity of cellulitis , except…?

Abscess of base of upper lip and Subperiosteal abscess,

Vestibular abscess,Intraalveolar and abscess of maxilla&Mandible

Infraorbital abscess,Buccal abscess

Submandibular abscess

178. Submental, Submandibular,Sublingual,Masseteric,Pterygomandibular,Superficia temporal, Deep temporal are :?

Low severity

Medium severity

High severity

Diffuse abscess.

179. The following are high severity of cellulitis , except…?

Diffuse cellulitis

Subcutaneous abscess

Ludwig’s angina

Lateral Pharyngeal Space Abscess, Retropharyngeal Abscess

180. The following are specific signs and symptoms of cellulitis , except…?

Redness(erythema) and swellin(edema)

Tenderness and pain

Bleeding

Warmth

181. The Goals of management of odontogenic infection is/are :?

Medical treatment.

Incision and drainage

Aspirate the contents

Laser therapy.

182. How many types of localized odontogenic infection ?

Periapical Infections - infection at the apex of an abscessed tooth.

Periodontal Infections – soft tissue infection in the periodontal pocket from advanced periodontitis.

Pericoronal Infections – soft tissue infection around the crown of the unerupted or partially erupted tooth.

All of the above

183. Spread of pus inside tissues from the site of the initial lesion, inflammation may spread in many ways :?

by continuity through tissue spaces and planes

by way of the lymphatic system

by way of blood circulation

All of the above

184. To drain pus from an abscess,the surgeon should :?

Penetrate into abscess cavity and probe with an artery to allow for flow of pus

Cut and eclipse from the abscess surface to allow for a drain

Aspirate the contents

Cut only the mucosa and skin

185. To drain pus from a submental abscess,the surgeon should :?

Cut and eclipse from the abscess surface to allow for a drain

Aspirate the contents

A horizontal incision should be placed 1–3 cm below the lower border of the mandible rather than the top of the swelling (abscess) to exploit gravity to encourage drainage

Cut only the mucosa and skin

186. To drain pus from a submandibular abscess,the surgeon should :?

Cut and eclipse from the abscess surface to allow for a drain

The incision for drainage is performed on the skin, approximately 1 cm beneath and parallel to the inferior border of the mandible

Aspirate the contents

Cut only the mucosa and skin

187. Treatment of choice to localized infection with pus is :?

Antibiotc administration

Establish drainage

Apply col to the area

Advise hot mouth washes

188. Among of the followinh which is treatment of choice for infection with fluctuation in an afebrile patient ?

Administration of antibiotics

Application of hot packs to the area

Incision and drainage

Antibiotics administration followed by I and D

189. Surgical blade used for drainage of abscess is :?

Blade No 12

Blade No 15

Blade No 11

Blade No 22

190. What is the most important and first step to treat acute infection?

Prescribe antibiotic

Prescribe analgesics

Incision and drainage of pus

All of the above

191. Which type of abscess that can cause airway obstruction?

Subcutaneous abscess

Ludwig’s Angina

Buccal abscess

Orbital cellulitis

192. In which case do you need to refer the patient to the hospital?

Localized infection

Ludwig’s Angina

Cavernous sinus thrombosis

Ludwig’s Angina and Cavernous sinus thrombosis

193. What is a dangerous infection with potentially serious complications ?

Buccal cellulitis

Sumandibular cellulitis

Orbital cellulitis

Sublingual cellulitis

194. Ludwig`s angina was first described by :?

The German physician, Wilhelm Frederick von Ludwig in 1836

Maxwell

Garre in the year 1893

Rene LeFort

195. The most common cause of cellulitis in face is :?

Dental carie

Pericoronitis and impacted teeth

Trauma trauma to the eyelid including bug bites, or a foreign object .

Antral infection

196. A diffuse inflammation of soft tissue that is not circumscribed is an :

Abscess

Granuloma

Swelling

Cellulitis

197. The most common micro-organisms associated with cellulitis is :?

Streptococci

Staphylococci

Actinomyces

Lactobacillus

198. A corne-shaped space infection involving inner canthus of eye is :?

Canine space

Buccal space

Parotid space

Palatal abscess

199. The incision technique of submandibular cellulitis the incision for drainage is performed on the skin, approximately :?

0,5 cm beneath and parallel to the inferior border of the mandible.

1 cm beneath and parallel to the inferior border of the mandible

2 cm beneath and parallel to the inferior border of the mandible.

3 cm beneath and parallel to the inferior border of the mandible.

200. Surgical drainage for submental abscess is usually performed through a cutaneous Incision. A horizontal incision should be placed :?

0,5–1 cm below the lower border of the mandible

1-3 cm below the lower border of the mandible

4 cm1 below the lower border of the mandible

5 cm below the lower border of the mandible

201. Ludwig's angina was first described by the German physician, Wilhelm Frederick von Ludwig :?

in 1836

in 1928

in 1980

in 2000

202. What is the osteitis ?

Osteitis is an flammatory process within medullary (Trabecular) bone that involves the marrow spaces

Osteitis is a painful swelling of the soft tissue of the mouth and face resulting from a diffuse spreading of purulent exudate along the facial planes that separate the muscle bundles.

Osteitis is an acute deep suppurative abcess of upper neck and perioral area.

Osteitis is a rare group of blistering autoimmune diseases.

203. The most common local causes of osteitis are :?

Apical infection

Localised pathological

Trauma

All as the above

204. The following are general factors of osteitis, except…?

Radiation and fibrous dysplasia

Osteoparosis

Apical infection

Diabetis,syphilis,tuberculosis

205. Classification of osteitis :

Acute and chronic osteitis

Acute, subacute and chronic osteitis.

Low severity,mederate severity and high severity.

Close and open osteitis.

206. Purulent exudate ,fistula and sequestra are the signs of :?

Acute osteitis.

Chronic osteitis

Orbital cellulitis

Sinusitis

207. Treatment of chronic osteitis :?

Incision and drainage.

Debridement -the removal of foreign material or devitalized tissue from the vicinity of a wound.

Sequestrectomy,Saucerization- an excavation of the tissue of a wound to form a shallow,saucelike depression

Medical treatment.

208. Dry soket is also termed all except :?

Localized acute alveolar osteomyelitis

Acute suppurative osteomyelitis .

Alveolar osteitis

Alveolalgia

209. The following are frequency increases with dry socket , except…?

Age and smoking

Dental carie

Use of bur

Long surgeries with flap

210. The following are signs and symptom of dry socket , except…?

Increase in acute, throbbing pain after 48 hrs (2-5 days)

Pain may radiate to ear and analgesics ineffective

Sequestrum formation

Fetid odor

211. The treatment of dry socket :?

Curettage the socket and Irrigation with chlorhexidine

Place Alvogyl in the socket

Prescribe strong analgesics

All of the above

212. Squestrum is a :?

Necrotized bone

Newly formed bone

Vital bone

Reactive bone formation

213. Acute osteomyelitis in maxilla is :?

Localized

Diffuse

Widespread

None of the above

214. Patients who are at high risk for osteomyelitis include those who are :?

Poorly nourished and elderly

Obese and those with impaired immune system

Those receiving long-term corticosteroid therapy

All of the above

215. The following are the signs and symptoms of osteomyelitis , except…?

Chill,high fever(40 C),rapid pulse,trismus and general malaise

As the infection progresses, the infected area becomes painful, mobility of teeth , swollen, and extremely tender.

Pus,fistula,sequestra(4-6 weeks),fetid odor and trismus

All of the above

216. Radiographic imaging of osteomyelitis :

moth eaten r/lucency, I.e. irregular, ,patchy, ragget and poorly outline

Radiopaque sequestrae, I.e. Piece of necrotic bone

Evidence of involucrum surrounding area of destruction

All of the above

217. The treatment of chronic suppurative osteomyelitis is :

Hyperbaric oxygen therapy

Sequestrectomy,saucerization and hyperbaric oxygen therapy

Sequestrectomy ,with hyperbaric oxygen therapy

Saucerization only

218. Chronic focal sclerosing osteomyelitis is also known as :

Perosteitis ossificans

Condensing osteitis

Garre`s osteomyelitis

Alveolar osteitis

219. Garre`s osteomyelitis was first described by Garre in the year :

1873

1883

1893

1903

220. A focal gross thickening of the periosteum with peripheral bone formation is :

Chronic osteomyelitis

Condencing osteitis

Garre`s osteomyelitis

Periostitis

221. Inflammatory cells seen chiefly in acute suppurative osteomyelitis histology are :

Plasmacells

Lymphocytes

Monocytes

Neurophilic PMNL`s

222. After decortication of mandible in osteomyelitis,closed irrigation suction and/or placement of antibiotic is done for a period of :?

5-7 days

7-10 days

10-14 days

14-20 days

223. Decortication of the mandible for the treatment of osteomyelitis was described by ;

Maxwell

Mowlem

Mader

Michellin

224. For a patient of osteomyelitis who is allergic to penicillin,all of the following drugs are recommended as 2nd and 3rd choices except :?

Clindamycin

Cephalosporin

Erythromycin

Sulfa drugs

225. Radiographic characteristics of osteomyelitis were described by :

Wilson

Worth

Wright

Williams

226. Radiolucencies due to spreading infection of osteomyelitis:

moth eaten r/lucency, I.e. irregular & poorly outline

Radiopaque sequestrae, I.e. Piece of necrotic bone

Patchy,ragget & ill define radiolucency

All of the above

227. All of the following are true about osteomyelitis of the mandible, except :?

Symphysis is more commonly involved than angle

Ramus is more commonly involved than symphysis

Body is more commonly involved than symphysis

Angle is more commonly involved than condyle

228. Osteomyelitis of the jaws is primarily caused by :

Peptostreptococcus

Prevotella (Bacteroids)

Streptococcus sp

Vincent`s organism

229. The most common organisms isolated from primary hematogenuos osteomyelitis of long bones in adult :?

staphylococcus sp

E.coli

Salmonella typhi

Pneumococcus

230. What is sinusitis ?

Sinusitis is a flammation of medular bone.

Sinusitis is a painful swelling of the soft tissue of the mouth and face resultating from a diffuse spreading of purulent exudate along the facial planes that separate the muscle bundles.

Sinusitis is an inflammatory of the mucosa of the sinus

Sinusitis is an infection of sinus bone

231. The following are the blood supply to the mucous membrane of sinus ,except….?

External Carotid artery

Facial and maxillary arteries.

Facial ,maxillary and infraorbital arteries

Facial ,maxillary , infraorbital arteries and greater palatine arteries.

232. The following are the nerve supply to the mucous membrane of sinus , except…?

Facial nerve

V1 of trigeminal nerve or Nerve ophthalmic.

V2 of trigeminal nerve or superior dental nerve and the greater palatine nerve.

V3 of trigeminal nerve or Inferior alveolar nerve.

233. I health,the thickness of sinus lining from :?

0,1-0,2 mm thick(on CT)

0.3 - 2 mm thick

3-4 mm thick

5-6 mm Thick

234. The following are the function of maxillary sinus,except…?

No special function is necessary

Lighten head, phonetic resonance and auditory feedback

Insulation,air conditioning, water conservation,olfaction,

Strengthen area against trauma and protect eyes and nasal cavity

235. Radiography for sinusitis are :?

Periapical radiograph

PA projection

OPG ,Water views or CTScan

Occlusal views

236. Indication of Caldwell Luc procedure ?

Acute sinusitis

Subacute sinusitis

Chronic sinusitis

Treatment of chronic maxillary sinusitis not responding to conservative medications

237. The following are contraindication for Caldwell-luc procedure,except…

Age < 3 Yrs

Age >18 Yrs

Trauma to maxillary sinus or fracture of antral floor.Acute maxillary sinusitis untreated by antibiotics

Diagnosis of maxillary antral hematoma.

238. Caldwell-Luc may be performed under :

Topical anesthesia only

Infiltration anesthesia only

Regional block with infiltration anesthesia or general anesthesia

Medical drug

239. Flap disign for antral closure of Oroantral Communication :

Vestibular flap,palatal flap,bridge flap and fat pad flap

Triangula flap

Trapezoid flap

Semi-lunar flap

240. The volume of maxillary sinus is :

15-30 ml

10 ml

40 ml

50 ml

241. Maxillary sinus is also known as :

Paranasal sinus

Antrum of Highmore

Antrum of Keith

No other name

242. The best view for maxillary sinus is :?

Town`s view

Occlusal view

PA view in waters`s position and OPG

Lateral view of skull

243. A small opening is made into the maxillary antrum during extraction, immediate treatment is :?

Phack the socket with gauge

Allow the clot to form No special treatment is necessary

Place the patient on antibiotics

Rise a big mucoperiosteal flap and close the antrum

244. How to diagnose an Oro-antral fistula?

Squeeze patient nose & ask to strongly blow to see air bubble

Insert a large needle into fistula & take X-ray

Use the probe to explore the fistula

None of the above

245. The following are the signs and symptoms of newly created oro-antral fistula,except…

Antral floor attached to roots apices of extracted tooth or teeth.

Fracture of the alveolar process or the tuberosity and bubbling of blood from the socket or nostril.

Dry shcket

Change in speech tone or resonance and radiographical evidence of sinus involment

246. When the sinus disease is caused by an oroantral communication,typically close spontaneously,if defects less than :?

< 5mm

< 7 mm

< 9 mm

<10 mm

247. <>procedure is done to :

Visualize the antrum from oral cavity

Visualize the antrum from nasal cavity

To establish drainage through nasal cavity

To pack the maxillary antrum

248. Acute maxillary sinusitis :

Results in referred pain to a single tooth

Results in referred pain to the orbit and maxillary posterior tooth

Is exacerbated by cold history

Is usually a non-infection process

249. Surgical treatment of sinusitis is :?

Antral irrigation

Caldwell-Luc procedure

Antrostomy

Enucleation

250. A tooth displaced into maxillary antrum can be removed by :?

Caldwell-luc procedure

Transalveolar extraction

Bergers`s method

Intranasal antrostomy

251. The other name of maxillary sinus is :?

Antrum of Highmore

Antrum of Denver

Antrum of Khnopfleer

Antrum of Wilson

252. The base of the maxillary sinus is formed by the :?

Zygomatic bone

Orbital floor

Hard palate

Lateral wall of the nose

253. The shape of the adult maxillary sinus is :?

Rhomboid

Trapezoid

Rectangular

Pyramidal

254. The incidence of oro-antral fistulae is less in :?

Children and young adults

Midle aged adults

Elderly

All of the above

255. The apex of the maxillary sinus faces the :

Nasal bone

Floor of the orbit

Palate

Zygomatic process of the maxilla

256. Inflammation of most or all para nasal sinuses simultaneously is described as :?

Pan sinusitis

Sinusitis

Para nasal sinusitis

Sinus thrombosis

257. Maxillary sinus infection of odontogenic origin is most commonly caused by :?

Aerobic bacteria

Anaerobic bacteria

Fungal

Viral

258. Classification of maxillary fracture by location :?

Close Fracture and open Fracture

Le Fort I,Le Fort II and Le Fort III Fractures

Nasal Fracture and Zygomatic Complex Fracture.

Pan facial or split palate

259. All of the following are signs and symptoms of dento-alveolar fractures, except :?

Pain ,paraesthsia ,stepped deformity alveolar bone and palpable fracture

Lacerations / bruising / haematoma of mucosa or gingiva and Visible fracture line

Through torn mucosa

Teeth – missing, avulsed, fractured , unusual mobility of teeth/bone

Loos of consciousness

260. What are components of NOE Fracture ?

frontal bone,nasal bone, maxillary bone.

frontal bone,nasal bone, maxillary bone, lacrimal bone.

frontal bone,nasal bone, maxillary bone, lacrimal bone, ethmoid bone and sphenoid bone

Nasal bone,eth moid bone and sphenoid bone.

261. What are components of Zygomatic complex Fracture ?

Zygomatic bone,Frontozygomatic bone and Zygomatic arch.

Zygomatic bone,Frontozygomatic bone , Zygomatic arch,Orbital rim.

Zygomatic bone,Frontozygomatic bone ,Zygomatic arch,Lateral orbital rim,infraorbital rim,orbital floor, anterior and lateral maxillary sinus

Zygomatic bone,Frontozygomatic bone and Zygomatic arc

262. What is the treatment of Zygomatic Complex Fracture ?

MMF or IMF Technique

Trans osseous wiring

Trans osseous wiring and Mini bone plates.

Reduction alone and reduction &fixation

263. Classification of mandibular fracture by type :?

Close and open fracture.

Simple Fx,compound Fx,comminuted Fx,greenstick Fx,Complex Fx,telescoped or impacted Fx

Dentoalveolar Fx,symphysisFx,parasymphysis Fx,body Fx,angle Fx,coronoid Fx,condyle Fx.

Class I ,Class II ,Class III

264. Classification of mandibular fracture by location :?

Close and open fracture.

Simple Fx,compound Fx,comminuted Fx,greenstick Fx,Complex Fx,telescoped or impacted Fx.

Dentoalveolar Fx,symphysisFx,parasymphysis Fx,body Fx,angle Fx,coronoid Fx, condyle Fx

Class I ,Class II ,Class III

265. All of the following are various indications of body fractures ,except:?

The patient need the rehabilitation of function, esthetic and easy for reduction and fixation (24 - 48 h after accident ).

The patient is stable enough to undergo the needed treatment

Hemorrahagie disturbances

To avoid of complication such as cellulitis,osteitis , malocclusion or pseudatrose.

266. All of the following are various contra-indications of body fractures ,except:?

The patient is not stable enough to undergo the needed treatment and no cooperation.

Away obstruction, hemorrhagie disturbances and no soft tissue to cover fracture site

Severe comminution, stabilization not possible and bone at fracture site diffusely infected

Soft tissue injury : lacerations,abrasions and ecchymosis

267. All of the following are various signs and symptoms of fractures of facial bone ,except:?

Facial asymmetry

Swelling,bleeding,nerve injury and trismus

Deranged occlusion

Pseudatrose

268. What is treatment of compound Fx ?

MMF Technique.

Trans osseous wiring

Trans osseous wiring and Mini bone plates

External fixation.

269. When we can remove MMF from the mouth of the patient ?

2 weeks

4-6 weeks

10 weeks

3 months

270. How we can treat simple fractures or intracapsular fracture of condyle ?

MMF Technique

Osteosynthesis

Bandage

Dental wiring.

271. The treatment compound fractures of condyle :?

MMF Technique

Osteosynthesis by ORIF

Bandage

External fixation.

272. The treatment for Edentulous patient :?

MMF Technique

Osteosynthesis

Gunning’s splint.

Gunning`s splint or Osteosynthesis

273. The muscles that aid in displacement of maxillary fractures are :?

Masseter

Temporalis

Upper part of orbicularis and lower part of orbicularis occuli

None of the above

274. A fracture mandible should be immobilized an everage of :?

3 weeks

6 weeks

9 weeks

12 weeks

275. Fracture of mandible all are true except :

Fractures of the mandible are common at the angle of the mandible

Fractures of the mandible are effected by the muscle pull

Fractures of the mandible are usually characterized by sublingual hematoma

C.S.F. Rhinorrhea is a common finding

276. The ideal treatment for fracture of the angle of mandible is :?

Transosseous wiring

Intermaxillary fixation

Plating on the lateral side of the body of the mandible

Plating at the inferior border of the mandible

277. Most common complication of condylar injuries in children :?

Pain

Ankylosis

Osteoartrhitis

Fracture of glenoid fossa

278. Primary healing of a mandibular fracture is seen following fixation with :?

Gunning splints

Compression plates

Trans-osseous wires

Champy plates

279. In the maxilla,a compression plate can be safely applied along the :

Infraorbital margin

Anterolateral wall of the maxillary sinus

Frontozygomatic suture

Zygomaticomaxillary suture

280. To provide absolute stability of the fracture ends by a compression bone plate, the minimum number of screws that have to be placed on both side of the fracture line is :?

Six

Two

Three

Four

281. After extraction of maxillary first molar,a communication is found between the palatal socket and a disease of free maxillary sinus which measure 0.2 cm.The best treatment is :?

Allow the clot to form advice proper home care

Primary closure and antihistamine

Gold foil closure

Caldwell-Luc operation

282. True open bite is caused by :?

Horizontal fracture of the maxilla

Unilateral fracture of mandibular angle

Fracture of the coronoid process of left side of mandible

Fracture of mandibular symphysis

283. In depressed zygomatic arch fracture, difficulty in opening the mouth is caused by impingement of:?

Condyles

Ramus

Petrous temporal

Coronoid process

284. Which is the immediate danger to a patient with severe facial injuries :?

Bleeding

Associated fracture spine

Infection

Respiratory obstruction

285. Le fort 1 fracture is characterized by:?

Bleeding from the ear

Bleeding from the antrum

Angle class 2 skeletal relationship

None of the above

286. Suturing in facial wound injuries should be done with in:?

2 hours

6 hours

4 hours

8 hours

287. Paresthesia is seen with which of the following types of fractures:?

Subcondylar

Zygomatico maxillary

Coronoid process

Symphyseal

288. Forceps used for maxillary fracture disimpaction?

Rowe's

Bristows

Ashs

Walshams

289. A patient is in shock with gross comminuted fracture, immediate treatment is to give :?

Normal saline

Ringer's lactate solution

Whole blood

Plasma expanders

290. Walsham's forceps are used to :?

Remove teeth

Remove root

Clamp blood vessels

Reduce nasal bone fractures

291. "Panda facies" is commonly seen after?

Le fort I fractures

Le fort II fractures

Mandible fractures

None of the above

292. CSF rhinorrhea is not found in?

Lefort 1

Lefort II

Lefort III

Ethmoidal

293. Gillis approach for reduction of zygomatic fractures is done through :?

Temporal fossa

Intra temporal fossa

Infra orbital fossa

All of the above

294. Which of the following is not a feature of Le Fort II fracture :

Enophthalmos

Malocclusion

Paraesthesia

CSF rhinorrhea

295. The first step in management of head injury is :

Secure airway

I.V. mannitol

I.V. dexamethasone

Blood transfusion

296. CSF rhinorrhea is found in :

Frontal bone structure

Zygomatico maxillary fracture

Naso ethmoidal fracture

Condylar fracture

297. Le Fort III fracture is the same as :?

Craniofacial dysjunction

Guerrin's fracture

Pyramidal fracture

None of the above

298. Fixation with pack in maxillary sinus is :?

To support comminuted fracture of the body of zygomatic complex

To support and reconstitute comminuted orbital floor fracture

To protect mucosal covering of maxillary sinus

All are corrects

299. Floating maxilla is typically found in :?

Le Fort I or guerin fractures

Le Fort II or pyramidal fractures

Craniomandibular dysjunction

All of the above

300. In a patient of head injury which is more important to note first:?

Pupillary light reflex

Pupillary size

Corneal reflex

Ability to open eye

301. Which of the following always indicates obstruction to the airway?

Slow pounding pulse

Stertoreous breathing

Increase in pulse rate

Decrease in blood pressure

302. Moon face is seen in?

Le Fort I

Le Fort II

Le Fort III

Orbital fractures

303. In blow out fractures which of the following is seen?

Enophthalmos

Exophtholmos

Bulbar hemorrhage

None

304. Diplopia after fracture results from entrapment of?

Inferior rectus

Inferior oblique

Lateral rectus

Superior oblique

305. In Le Fort III fracture all are seen except?

Crack pot sound on tapping teeth

CSF rhinorrhea

Fracture at frontozygomatic suture

Whole face is mobile

None of the above

306. The muscle that aids in displacement of maxillary fractures are?

Masseter

Temporalis

Orbicularis oculi and orbicularis oris

None of the above

307. What is the name of the fracture that is clinically detected by tugging on the maxilla/hard palate causing the nose to move.?

le fort 1

le fort 2

le fort 3

le fort 4

308. Which facial view x-ray is the best for examining the orbits and midface?

OPG

Waters or occipitomental

Caldwell or PA view

Submental vertex

Towne

309. A tripod fracture involves what?

It is another word for le fort fracture

Zygomaticotemperal and zygomatico frontal suture diastasis and inferiororbital rim fracture

Fracture through maxilla, zygomatic arch and nasal bones

Fracture through neck angle and body of the mandible

310. What is nonrigit fixation ?

Open reduction and fixation of fractures using plates and screws

Open reduction and fixation of fractures using wires

Close reduction and fixation of fracture using ligature Ivy

Close reduction and fixation of fracture using Arch Bars & wire

311. What is rigit fixation ?

Open reduction and fixation of fractures using plates and screws

Open reduction and fixation of fractures using wires

Close reduction and fixation of fracture using ligature Ivy

Close reduction and fixation of fracture using Arch Bars & wire

312. Which part of the mandible is fractured the most frequently in trauma?

Condyle

Ramus

Body

Symphysis

313. Maxillary sinus is usually involved in fractures:?

Le fort 1

Zygomatic arch fracture

Le fort 3

Nasoethmoidal fracture

314. If a fracture of jaw bone is communicated to external environment ,it is called :?

Comminuted fracture

Compound fracture

Simple fracture

Transverse fracture

315. Le fort 3 fracture is also called :?

Horizontal fracture

Pyramidal fracture

Transverse fracture

Green stick fracture

316. Goals of Maxillomandibular Fixation (MMF) :?

Restore occlusion

Reduction of fracture segments

Stabilization of fracture segments

All of the above

317. During the Gillies approach,the structure of anatomic significance is :?

Superficial temporal artery

Marginal mandibular nerve

Internal jugular vein

Inferior alveolar nerve

318. An unfavorable displaced fracture of the mandibular angle is difficult to treat because of :?

Muscle pull causes distraction

Malocclusion secondary to the injury

Injury to nerves and vessels

Bone in that region is very thick

319. Among the following which may produce respiratory obstruction ?

Bilateral condylar fracture

Symphysis fracture of the mandible

Bilateral fracture of mandible in the second premolar area

Fracture of the angle of the mandible

320. In a patient with bilateral dislocated fractures of the neck of the mandibular condyles one can expect the following clinical signs :?

Anterior open bite

Inability to protrude the mandible

Inability to bring posterior molars into contact

Anterior open bite and Inability to protrude the mandible

321. Of the following which facial bone is most frequently fractured ?

Mandible

Maxilla

Nasal

Zygomatic

322. Which of the following is complication often open fracture ?

Malunion

Nonunion

Infection

Crepitation

323. Principles in treatment fractures include :

Reduction of fracture

Fixation of fracture and restoration of occlusion

Immmobilisation

All of the above

324. Depressed fracture of the zygomatic area may be clinically recognized by :?

Concavity of the overlaying tissue in the zygomatic arch area

Interference with movements of the mandible

Subluxation of condyles

Concavity of the overlaying tissue in the zygomatic arch area and Interference with movements of the mandible

325. Which of the following is characteristic of lefort fracture ?

CSF rhinorrhea

Bleeding from the ear

Bleeding into antrum

CSF rhinorrhea and Bleeding from the ear

326. After a depressed fracture of zygomatic arch mandibular movement is restricted The most probable reason is :?

Disruption of TMJ

Spasm of the lateral pterygoid muscle

Mechanical impingement of the fracture fragment on the coronoid process

Splinting action of masseter and medial pterygoid muscle

327. Among the following which is compound fracture ?

Fracture with many small fragments

Fracture in a star shaped appearance

Fracture with communition with the oral cavity

Fracture with bleeding into the masticator space

328. The mini-bone plate system is a :?

Compressive bone plating system

Monocortical system

Bicortical system

None of the above

329. The minimum number of miniplates required in fractures anterior to canine in mandible is:?

No plate is required since anterior region develops less amount of tension forces than in molar region

Only one plate as in molar region

Two plates

Three plates

330. Minimum number of screw required for fixation of miniplate are :?

One screw on each side of fracture site

Two screws on each side of fracture site

Three screws on each side of fracture site

Two screws in small fragment and three screws in large fragment

331. Risdom wiring is indicated for :?

Body fracture

Angle fracture

Symphysis fracture

Subcondylar fracture

332. The most common complication of maxillofacial injuries requiring immediate attention is:?

Haemorrhage

Airway obstruction

Infection

Shock

333. The Gillies approach is used to gain acess to the following bone :?

Nasal bone

Zygomatic bone

Maxilla

Temporal bone

334. While doing circumferential wiring around a mandibular Gunning splint, care most be taken not to damage the :?

Mandibular branch of the facial nerve

Facial artery as it crosses the anteroinferior of the masseter

The lingual nerve

The submsndibular gland and its duct

335. The elastic traction used commonly to reduce facial fractures,does so by overcoming :?

The active mascular pull that distracts the fragments

The organized connected tussue at the fracture site

The malposion caused by the direction and force of trauma

All of the above

336. Panda facies is commonly seen after :?

Le fort 1 fractures

Le fort 2 fractures

Zygoatic arch fractures

Orbital blow-out fractures

337. A subconjunctival haemorrhage remains bright red in colour for a long time because of the:?

Permeability of the conjunctiva to oxygen

Natural colour of blood

Lack of drainage of the pooled blood

None of the abov

338. The following fracture is usually pyramidal in shape :?

Le firt I fracture

Le fort II fracture

Le fort III fracture

Mandibular symphysis fracture

339. Cranio facial disjunction commonly occurs in :?

Le fort I fracture

Le fort III fracture

Mandibular symphysis fracture

Mandibular condyle

340. Gilli`s approach is :

Used to block inferior alveolar nerve

Used to reduce the fractured zygoma

Placed just anterior to the ear

One of the frequent approach for condylar surgery

341. Contraindications of close reduction are :?

Alcoholic and siezure disorder

Mental retardation and nutritional concerns

Respiratory diseases(COPD) and unfavorable fractures

All of the above

342. Indications of close reduction are :?

Nondisplaced favorable fractures

Mandibular fractures in children with developing dentition.

Condylar fractures(intracapsular fracture )

All of the above

343. Indications of open reduction are :?

Unfavorable/unstable mandibular fractres/Multiple fractures of the facial bones

Fractures of an edentulous mandibule fracture with severe displacement and malunion

Delayed treatment with interposition of soft tissue that prevents closed reduction techniques to reapproximate the fragments

All of the above

344. Indication of Transosseous wiring :?

Control of edentulous posterior fragment and edentulous mandibular fractures

Grossly comminuted fractures

Control of lower border when upper border has been fixed by conventional methods

All of the above

345. The treatment goals of condylar fractures:?

To restore mandibular function, occlusion, prevent growth disturbances, and maintain symmetry

Must avoid ankylosis

Use short periods of IMF (7-14 days), then jaw opening exercises; in children under 3 years, immediate function necessary to prevent ankylosis

All of the above

346. Which methods of treatment are appropriate for reduction of a fractured mandibular angle in a dentate patient :?

Intramaxillary fixation(IMF) using eyelet wires

IMF using arch bars

Mini bone plates

IMF using K-wires

347. Subconjunctival bleed with no posterior border indicates fracture of which bone:?

Maxilla

Mandible

Zygoma

Nasal

348. The weakest part of mandible where fracture occurs :?

Neck condyle

Angle of mandible

Canine fossa

Midline

349. The most common fracture of face is that of :?

Mandible

Maxilla

Zygoma

Nasal bone

350. Sinus disease is best demonstrated by :?

CTscan

Plain X-ray

Tomography

Ultrasound

351. Nasal pyramid consist of :?

Nasal bones and Nasal septum

Frontal processes of maxilla

Lateral cartilages

All the above

352. Diplopia is caused by:?

Hematoma or edema arround extraoccular muscle

Neuromuscular injury

Disruption of attachment of inferior rectus or inferior oblique muscle

All the above

353. Signs and Symptoms of LeFort I fracture :?

Damaged teeth and soft tissues,swelling and bruising and deformity of alveolus

Crepitus over maxilla,ecchymosis in buccal vestibule and epistaxis

Malocclusion,maxilla mobility or Independent movement of fragments,altered sensation

All of the above

354. Signs and Symptoms of LeFort II fracture :?

Midface crepitus,face lengthening and anterior open bite

Malocclusion, mobility of maxilla,bilateral epistaxis and infraorbital paresthesia

Ecchymoses: buccal vestibule, periorbital, subconjunctival ,orbital rim defects and paraesthesis (infra-orbital nerve)

All of the above

355. Signs and Symptoms of LeFort III fracture :?

Bilateral periorbital edema , ecchymosis,step deformity palpated infraorbital, nasofrontal area and infraorbital paresthesia

Bilateral epistaxis,often medial canthal deformity,often unequal pupil height,face lengthening: “caved-in” or “donkey face”

Malocclusion: “open bite”,lateral orbital rim defect and ecchymoses: periorbital, subconjunctival

All of the above

356. LeFort Fractures were described by :?

Wilson

Rene LeFort,1901

Knight and North

Williams

357. The coronal or bi-temporal approach is used to expose :?

The anterior cranial vault

The forehead

The apper and middle regions of the facial skeleton.

All of the above

358. Clinical sign that is always positive in fracture is

Crepitus

Tenderness

Abnormal mobility

All of the above

359. The most (common ) sign mandibular fracture is :

Malocclusion

Trismus

Deviation of the jaw on opening

Paraesthesia of the mental nerve

360. Which of them is not rigid osteosynthetic fixation?

Osteosynthesis

Microplating

Screw plating

Wiring

361. Treatment of choice of a linear non-displaced fracture of the body of the mandible, with full compliment of teeth is ?

Kirschner wire

Circumferential wiring

External pin fixation

Interdental fixation

362. Which of the following condition is associated with anterior open bite

Unilateral condylar #

Bilateral condylar #

Maxillary fractures

Coronoid fracture

363. Fracture of mandible not involving dental arch is treated by :?

Open reduction

Closed reduction

No treatment required

None of the above

364. In case of sub condylar fracture, the condyle move in?

Anterior - lateral direction

Posterior - medial direction

Posterior- lateral direction

Anterior-medial direction

365. A 7-year-old boy presented with fracture of left subcondylar region with occlusion undisturbed, the treatment would be?

Immobilization for 7 days

Immobilization for 14 days with intermittent active opening

No immobilization with restricted mouth opening for 10 days

No immobilization and active treatment

366. Facial fractures are diagnosed from :?

The history

Physical examination

Radiographs

All of the above

367. Le Fort I fracture is :?

above the level of teeth

at level of nasal bones

at orbital level

at level of zygomatic bone

368. Le Fort II fracture is :?

Transverse maxillary

Pyramidal

Craniofacial Disjunction

All of the above

369. Le Fort III fracture is :?

Subzygomatic fracture

Subzygomatic pyramidal

Suprazygomatic

All of the above

370. What are the singns and symptoms of Lefort I fracture ?

Damaged teeth and soft tissues

Deformity of alveolus and altered sensation

Malocclusion and crepitus over maxilla

All as the above

371. What can be the signs and symptoms of le fort II fracture? Choose all that apply. ?

Bilateral epistaxis,open bite and face lengthening

Ecchymoses: buccal vestibule, periorbital, subconjunctival

Malocclusion, mobility of maxilla

All as the above

372. Which of the following is the cause of fracture of facial bone ?

Motor vehicle accidents

assault

Sport and gunshots wounds

All are correct

373. The following are the treatments of close reduction , except…?

Ivy loop wiring and continuous loop wiring

Maxillo-mandibular fixation (MMF)

Inter-maxilla fixation (IMF)

Bone plating

374. All of the following are various surgical approaches for condylar fractures ,except:?

Submandibular (Risdom`s ) approach -(Neck condyle)

Postauricular approach and endaural approch–(Excellent cosmesis)

Preauricular approach

IMF

375. All of the following are indication for nonsurgical treatment or close reduction of condylar process fractures ,except:?

Split condylar head

Intracapsular fracture

Extracapsular fracture

Small fragments from comminuted condyle

376. All of the following are absolute indication for surgical treatment or open reduction of condylar process fractures ,except:?

Displacement of condyle into middle cranial fossa

Intracapsular fracture

Impossibility for restoring occlusion

Lateral extracapsular displacement

377. ឝើ Abscess of base of upper lip, Subperiosteal abscess,Vestibular abscess,Intraalveolar abscess of maxilla&Mandible ,Infraorbital abscess,Buccal abscess ស្ឝិឝក្នុងក្រុមណា?

Low severity

Medium severity

High severity

Diffuse abscess.

378. Which of the following is NOT the differential diagnosis of a soft tissue lesion?

List all the most probable diagnosis

Look at the characteristics of each condition/lesion

Blood tests

Compare & distinguish between them

Choose on a “best-fit” basis

379. Which one of the following is NOT the investigation before extraction?

Radiographs

Antibiotic

Pulp vitality tests

Study models

Plaque disclosure

380. What is the ideal treatment plan?

Long-term outcomes

Address all patient concerns

Minimum intervention

All of the above

None of the above

381. In which cases consent should be informed before starting the treatment?

Suture removal

Surgical removal of deep unerupted mandibular wisdom teeth

Prescription writing for orofacial pain

Extraction of a maxillary second molar which the root is close proximity to the sinus

Surgical removal of deep unerupted mandibular wisdom teeth and Extraction of a maxillary second molar which the root is close proximity to the sinus

382. Which of one of the following is NOT the clinical factors predicting the difficulty of extractions?

Extensive loss of coronal tooth structure

Thickness of the buccal plate

Limited access to the area of extraction

Limited access to the tooth in the dental arch

Severe periodontitis

383. Which of one of the following is NOT the radiographic factors predicting the difficulty of extraction?

Severely divergent roots

Periapial radiolucency

Dilacerated roots

Endodontically treated teeth with or without post and core

Increased number of roots present

384. Which teeth are at risk for sinus exposure when doing extraction?

Lone standing maxillary molar with pneumatized maxillary sinus

Roots projecting into a severely pneumatized maxillary sinus and minimal coronal bone visible radiographically

Long divergent bulbous roots with a pneumatized sinus into the trifurcation area

Teeth with advanced periodontal disease but with no mobility; also teeth with the maxillary sinus extending into the trifurcation area

All of the above

385. Which one of the following is NOT one of the principles of flap designs?

Good surgical access

Avoid vital structures

A little broad base flap

Very broad base

Prevention of flap dehiscence

386. What are the factors to consider in flap design?

Depth of the buccal sulcus

Position & size of labial fraenum and muscle attachments

Vital structures

Size of lesion

Number of teeth to be treated

All of the above

387. Which one of the following is NOT one of the basic steps of surgical extraction?

Incision & raising a flap

Application of Betadine

Removal of bone

Tooth or root division

Removal of tooth or roots

388. Which suture that can be used in contaminated wounds?

Vicryl

Silk

Nylon

Catgut

Stainless steel

389. Which suture creates eversion of the wound edges?

Interrupted sutures

Continuous sutures

Horizontal mattress suture

Vertical mattress suture

Figure-of-eight suture

390. What sizes of the sutures that commonly used in oral cavity?

2/0

3/0 & 4/0

4/0 & 5/0

6/0

7/0

391. What is the atraumatic suturing technique?

No crushing tissues with forceps

Not too large suture and needle

Not too large tissue bites

Not too tight

Not too dry

All of the above

392. Which suture is used for extraction socket of molar teeth to control bleeding?

Horizontal mattress

Vertical mattress

Figure-of-eight and interrupted

Interrupted

Sling suture

393. How many knots do you need to tie tissues intra-orally?

One knot

Two knots

Three knots

Four knots

Five knots

394. Suture is selected depends on:

Tissue to be suturing, ie. mucosa, muscle, skin

Wound condition

Healing process, cost, and tissue tolerance

Patient’s availability to come for suture removal

All of the above

395. How do you prevent aspiration of a tooth or root into the lungs when doing an extraction?

Place a piece of sterilized gauze as a pharyngeal screen at the back of the patient's mouth

Place a rubber dam on the tooth

Patient stands up while extracting the tooth

Lay the patient flat while extracting the tooth

Use bite block or mouth prop

396. How to treat postoperative ecchymosis?

Apply ice pack on the bruise

Reassure the patient

Inject steroid

Apply warm moist pack

Reassure the patient and Apply warm moist pack

397. How do you avoid TMJ dislocation during dental procedures?

Tell the patient not to open too wide

Make short appointment

Use mouth prop

Support the mandible during extraction

All of the above

398. What are the symptoms and signs of alveolar osteitis (dry socket)?

Severe pain and discomfort from the extraction site

Pain may radiate from to other parts of the head, ear, eye, and neck

Exposed bone around the socket and Delayed healing

Remaining food debris inside the socket

All of the above

399. Which one of the treatment procedures of alveolar osteitis (dry socket) below is NOT always given to the patients?

Irrigate the socket with chlorhexidine

Prescribed antibiotic

Apply Alvogyl in the socket

Prescribe strong analgesics

Take note in the patient's file

400. Which one of the following is NOT the prevention of dry socket?

Stop smoking

Stop oral contraceptive for several days before & a few days after surgery

Give antibiotic before extraction/surgery

Minimize extraction force

Give clear oral health instruction

401. Which of the following are the local measures to control bleeding after surgical extraction?

Use vitamin K and Blood transfusion

Apply pressure with sterilized gauze

Use tranexamic acide injection

Place Gelfoam or Surgicel in the socket

Suture across the socket

Apply pressure with sterilized gauze, Place Gelfoam or Surgicel in the socket and Suture across the socket

402. In aggressive measure to control bleeding, which medication is commonly used?

Adrenoxyl

Dicinone

Tranexamic acid mouthrinse

Vitamin K

Desmopressin

403. Which hemostatic agent do you use to control bleeding from bone?

Gelfoam

Bone wax

Surgicel

Ferric sulfate

Thrombin

404. In coronectomy, how far from the CEJ of the crown do you need to cut?

1mm to mm below the CEJ

mm to 4mm below the CEJ

4mm to 6mm below the CEJ

cm to 4cm below the CEJ

All of the above

405. Which one of the following statements are NOT the treatments of acute pericoronitis?

Extraction of opposing tooth, Prescribe potent analgesics

Apply acid around the operculome

Operculectomy

Irrigation around the tooth crown with Chlorhexidine

Apply acid around the operculome and Operculectomy

406. Which of the following statements are NOT the factors associated with surgical difficulty of mandibular wisdom teeth?

Verical angulation

Increased age, obesity and Body mass index

Patient with no TMJ disorders

Curvature of roots & dense bone

Verical angulation and Patient with no TMJ disorders

407. What are the radiographic signs indicative of possible inferior alveolar nerve injury during surgical removal of unerupted mandibular wisdom teeth?

Darkening of the root and Narrowing of the roots

Deflection of the root

Interruption of radiopaque line

Diversion of canal

Darkening of the root, Deflection of the root and Interruption of radiopaque line

408. Which case the enucleation of cyst in applied?

Small cyst in the jaws

Large cysts near vital structures

Ameloblastoma with aggressive behaviour

Cystic fibrosis

All of the above

409. Which case of cyst do you need to do marsupialization?

Very large cyst involving vital structures

Traumatic bone cyst

Pocket cyst of lateral incisor

Mucous retention cyst in the floor of the mouth (ranula)

Very large cyst involving vital structures and Mucous retention cyst in the floor of the mouth (ranula)

410. Which of the following is the most recommended and affordable retrograde filling material for apicectomy?

Amalgam

Gutta percha

Glass Ionomer cement

Zinc Oxide Eugenol or IRM

EBA

411. How to diagnose an Oro-antral fistula?

Squeeze patient nose & ask to strongly blow to see air bubble

Insert a large needle into fistula & take X-ray

Use the probe to explore the fistula

None of the above

All of the above

412. Which one of the following is NOT the factors influencing the course of infection?

Portal of entry

Virulence

Patient's weight

Pathogenicity

Host defens

413. What are the investigations for infection?

Take swap of pus for microbiology & antibiotic sensitivity

Immunoflurescence

Blood culture

Urine test

Take swap of pus for microbiology & antibiotic sensitivity and Blood culture

414. Which of the following are NOT the modes of spread of infection?

Saliva

Lymphatic, Blood

Tear

D. Direct spread

Saliva and Tear

415. Where can the infection spread from maxillary nd premolar spread to?

Maxillary sinus

Palatal space

Infratemporal space

Infraorbital space or buccal space

All of the above

416. Where can the infection from mandibular molars spread to?

Submandibular or buccal space

Sublingual space

Submental space

Lateral pharyngeal space

All of the above

417. Which one of the following space that the infection from the mandibular 3rd molar will NOT spread to?

Pterygomandibular

Lateral pharyngeal

Submandibular

Palatal space

Submesseteric

418. Which type of acute infection that can cause airway compromised?

Infraorbital space

Ludwig’s Angina

Buccal space

Canine space

Cavernous sinus

419. What is the most important and first step to treat acute infection?

Prescribe antibiotic

Prescribe analgesics

Antiseptic mouthwash

Incision and drainage of pus

All of the above

420. What is the first line antibiotic for acute infection?

Rodogyl

Tetracycline

Amoxicillin or with clavulanic acid

Cephaxin

All of the above

421. In which case do you need to refer the patient to the hospital?

Localized infection

Ludwig’s Angina

Palatal abscess

] Cavernous sinus thrombosis

Ludwig’s Angina and Cavernous sinus thrombosis

422. How to confirm the definitive diagnosis of a soft tissue lesion (diameter ˃cm) on the lateral border of the tongue?

Blood test

Fine needle aspiration

Incisional biopsy

Excisional biopsy

All of the above

423. What are the principles of treatment of benign soft tissue lesions?

Observe

Reduce

Excise

Resect

All of the above

424. Which lesions are needed for fine needle aspiration?

Vascular lesions

Fluctuant soft tissue pathology

Surgical emphysema

Intraosseous pathology

Fluctuant soft tissue pathology and Intraosseous pathology

425. What are the flap designs for frenectomy?

Elliptical incision, Triangular flap

Z-plasty, Semilunar flap

V-type incision, Rectangular flap

Elliptical incision, Z-plasty and V-type incision

Elliptical incision, Z-plasty and V-type incision and Triangular flap

426. Which of the following statements are the clinical assessments of unerupted maxillary canines?

Observation or visual inspection for bulging, lateral incisors’ position

Taking radiographs, Retained deciduous canines

Palpation on both labial & palatal sides for bone projection

Family history of missing canines

Probing by using a Michelle Trimmer

Observation or visual inspection for bulging, lateral incisors’ position, Palpation on both labial & palatal sides for bone projection and Probing by using a Michelle Trimmer

427. Which one of the following is NOT the radiographic assessment of unerupted maxillary canines?

OPG

Sialogram

Periapical X-rays

Occlusals: Ant. & Vertex Occlusal

Lateral Cephalogram

428. Which one of the following is NOT the treatment option of unerupted maxillary canines?

Surgical removal of unerupted canine

Interceptive removal of primary canine

No treatment or leave in-situ

Surgical exposure with orthodontic alignment

Laser treatment

429. What are the criteria for surgical removal of unerupted maxillary canines?

Patient is older than 16 years old

Good contact between premolar & lateral incisor

Poor prognosis for alignment

Good aesthetic of a retained deciduous canine with a long root

Unwilling to wear orthodontic appliance

All of the above

430. When aspirate a cystic lesion which shows cholesterol, what type of cyst might it be?

Dentigerous cyst

Eruption cyst

Inflammatory cyst

Odontogenic keratocyst

Aneurysmal bone cyst

431. When aspirate a cyst-like lesion which shows blood, what type of lesion might it be?

Contamination, Lipoma

Aneurysmal bone cyst, Radicular cyst

Haemengioma

Mucoccel

Contamination, Aneurysmal bone cyst and Haemengioma

432. When aspirate a cyst-like lesion which shows air, what type of lesion/structure might it be?

Salivary gland duct,

Maxillary sinus

Traumatic bone cyst

Nerve canal

Maxillary sinus, Traumatic bone cyst

433. Which of one the following lesions do NOT need to do excisional biopsy?

Firoepithelial polyps

Mucocoeles

Fibromas

Haemengioma

Papillomas

434. Which one of the followings is NOT needle stick injury precautions?

Sharps should be passed via a receiver, not hand to hand

Use only plastic instruments

Verbal announcements should be made when passing sharps

Safety devices should be used for storage of needles and blades eg. Magnetic mats

Instruments should be used for tissue retraction- hands should never be used for retraction, to grasp needles, and to load and unload needles and scalpels.

435. Which of the following is/are the clinical factors predicting the difficulty of extractions?

Loss of crown

Thick buccal bone plate

Limited access

Old patients

Previous root canal treated tooth

All of the above

436. Which of the following is NOT the principles of flap designs?

Proper surgical access

Adequate blood supply

Raise small flap

Avoid vital structures

Prevention of flap dehiscence

Soft tissue handling

437. What happening when an incision is not placed over sound bone?

Dehiscence, periodontal defect

Collapse and delayed healing

Tension, dehiscence, and delayed healing

Flap necrosis

All of the above

438. When a fractured root tip can be left in-situ?

The root tip is smaller than mm in an infected root

For small root fragments as the risk of removing them may cause potential complications

The infected root tip is closed to the maxillary sinus

The infected root is close to the inferior alveolar nerve

All of the above

None of the above

439. Which one of the following is NOT the perioperative attire for infection control procedures?

Mask and gloves

Protective eye wears safety glasses

Head light

Footwear or easily cleaned shoes

440. When our hands are needed to be washed?

Before and after touching patients

Before and after a procedure

After touching patient's surrounding and blood

All of the above

441. What should you do when you get needle and sharp injury?

Conduct a risk assessment of degree of risk

Obtain verbal consent from patient to test for Hep B, Hep C and HIV

Vaccinate within 72 hours if required

All of the above

442. Which one of the followings is NOT needle stick injury precaution?

Sharps should be passed via a receiver, not hand to hand

Use only plastic instruments

Verbal announcements should be made when passing sharps

Safety devices should be used for storage of needles and blades eg. Magnetic mats

443. According to NICE guideline, the indication for surgical removal of a third molar is:?

Patient with chronic headache

Patient with lower incisor crowding

Patient with second or subsequent episodes of pericoronitis

Patient with deep impaction pressing on the nerve

444. Which of the following statements are NOT the treatments of acute pericoronitis?

Extraction of opposing tooth

Apply acid around the operculome and operculectomy

Prescribe potent analgesics

Irrigation around the tooth crown with Chlorhexidine

445. What are the risks for surgical removal of the third mandibular molars?

Nerve damage

Alveolar osteitis

Prolonged bleeding

Infection

All of the above

446. What are the contraindications for removal of the third molars?

Acute infection with severe trismus

Possible damage to adjacent structures

Compromised physical status

Completely asymptomatic impacted teeth in elderly individuals

All of the above

447. When assessing mandibular wisdom teeth, which of the followings indicate that the teeth are difficult to remove?

Young patients

Elderly patient or disto-angular impaction with dense bone

Mesio-angular impaction with conical roots

Verical angulation which is fully erupted

448. What are the radiographic signs indicative of possible inferior alveolar nerve injury during surgical removal of unerupted mandibular wisdom teeth?

Darkening of the root

Deflection of the root

Diversion of canal

Interruption of radiopaque line

All of the above

449. In assessment of the degree of difficulty of 3rd molar surgery, which one of the followings is NOT the local factors?

Type of impaction, angulation, depth of application, morphology

Mouth opening (trismus)

Presence/absence of opposing/adjacent tooth and cheek flexibility

Presence of infection (pericoronitis)

Gender (male or female)

450. Why age of the patient is important in assessing the difficulty of surgical removal?

Morbidity and intra and post-operative complications increase with age

The younger, the more difficult surgery

The older, the easier the surgery

The fibrous tissues increases with age

451. Which flap design is the most common flap for surgical removal of mandibular third molars?

Distal limited flap

Envelop flap

Buccal extension flap

Triangular flap

452. What is the indication for distal limited flap?

For large crown with diverged roots

For horizontally impacted tooth closed to ID nerve

For distoangular impaction with dense bone

For conical roots tooth that can be easily elevated

453. What is the problem with buccal extension flap using for surgical removal of mandibular third molars?

Too small exposure

Periodontal problem

Hard to retract the flap

Risk of long buccal nerve injury

454. What type of burr is usually used for surgical removal of third molars?

Fissure high speed burr

Round diamond high speed burr

Round and fissure low speed burrs

Round diamond low speed burr

455. How do you decide the tooth section line in unerupted mandibular third molars?

Depth of impaction

Angulation and root anatomy

Bone density

Inferior dental canal

456. When do we usually remove sutures following surgical removal third molars?

In 3 days

In 4 days

In 5 to 7 days

15 to 30 days

457. What blade number is used to make incision along the gingival crest distal to tooth #17 and #27 when surgically remove maxillary third molars?

Blade #11

Blade #12

Blade #15

Blade 16

458. How do you prevent inferior dental nerve injury during surgical removal of mandibular wisdom teeth?

Use atraumatic surgical techniques and perform coronectomy

Use high speed to cut crowns

Raise small flap

Always take CT scan

459. What are the contraindications for coronectomy?

Mobile tooth (advanced periodontitis)

Caries with potential pulp involvement and periapical abscess

Associated with cyst which won’t resolve with the root left in place

Nerve too close to the coronectomy cut

All of the above

460. In coronectomy, how far from the CEJ of the crown do you need to cut?

1mm to 2mm below the CEJ

2mm to 4mm below the CEJ

4mm to 6mm below the CEJ

2cm to 4cm below the CEJ

461. Which one of the following is NOT the specific warning after coronectomy?

Root exposure migration in the later date

Paresthesia of the upper lip

Later removal of roots

Roots inadvertently removed at the time of attempted coronectomy

462. Which flap design is best indicated for an apicectomy of maxillary incisors with ceramic crowns on?

Seminlunar flap

Triangular flap

Modified scallop semilunar

Rectangular flap

463. What are the radiographic features of radicular cysts?

Round/ovoid, well-defined, unilocular radiolucency with radiopaque margin

Diplacement of teeth

Root resorption

All of the above

464. Which of the following is NOT the factor to consider in flap design?

Depth of the buccal sulcus

Gingival biotypes

Position & size of labial fraenum and muscle attachments

Vital structures

465. Which of the retrograde filling material for apicectomy is at risk of scattering (running to surrounding areas) in soft tissues?

Amalgam

Gutta percha

Glass Ionomer cement

Zinc Oxide Eugenol or IRM

MTA

466. What are the disadvantages of semilunar flap?

Poor access and incision often over the lesion

Difficult moisture control (haemorrhage) and difficult to reposition

Uncomfortable during healing and leaves scars

All of the above

467. What are the advantages of Luebke-Oschenbein Flap (Modified scalloped semilunar)?

Maintain integrity of gingival attachment

Ease in incision & reflection

Enhanced visibility & access

Ease in repositioning

All of the above

468. Which one of the following statement is correct for apical ressection in apecectomy?

25 degree bevel

0-degree bevel root resection

35 degree bevel

45 degree bevel

469. Which one of the following is NOT the desirable characteristic of root-end filling materials?

Ease of application

Radiopacity

Resistance to moisture

Resorbable material

Antibacterial activity

470. What does successful apicectomy of a non-vital tooth depends on?

Small flap design

Proper RCT before apicectomy with retrograde filling

Amalgam retrograde filling

Good sutures

471. What are the criteria for simple surgical exposure (Window Technique) of impacted maxillary canines?

Patient under 16

Adequate space in the arch

Located far from the midline and Inclination is closer to 45o

Healthy root morphology

All of the above

472. What are the indications for apical positioned flap for maxillary impacted canines?

The canine is placed more palatal

The canine crown is apical to MGJ and has got minimal attached gingiva

The canine is near lateral or central incisors

Presence of primary canine

473. What are the criteria for exposure with the application of direct mechanical force of impacted maxillary canines?

Gold chains, steel or elastic ligatures, & magnets attached to orthodontic appliance

Angulation will inhibit spontaneous eruption

Obstructed from erupting by other teeth

Teeth are exposed long after their root development is complete

All of the above

474. How do you take Parallax or Tube Shift Technique of impacted maxillary teeth?

By using Panoramic X-ray

By using CBCT

By using 2 Periapical films with two different angles, 15o to 20o

By using one periapical film like Paralleling Technique

475. What are the problems with traditional endodontic surgery?

Restricted access leading to limitations in visibility

Operating on minuscule microstructures, obscured by bleeding

Root apex was routinely resected with a 45-degree bevel angle → increase in apical leakage

All of the above

476. What type instrument and root ending material are used in modern endodontic surgery?

Root-end preparation material

Use amalgam as a root-end filling

Use ultra-sonic tip and MTA as a root-end filling

Use local antibiotic for irrigation

477. What are the reasons for failure in apicectomy?

Inadequate apical seal

Improper RCT

Inadequate tooth support

Vertical root fracture

All of the above

478. Primary alveoloplasty of the jaw bones can be made by using:?

Digital compression of sockets

Intra-alveolar forceps extraction technique

Removing interseptal bone with rongeurs and burs

All of the above

479. What is the flap design for surgical removal of torus palatinus?

V-shape incision

Y-shape incision

L-shape incision

Z-plasty

480. What is the surgical technique to remove hyperplastic maxillary tuberosity?

Y-shape incision

Two-sided flap

Elliptical excision of crestal mucosa

Three-sided flap

481. What are the surgical techniques to incise/excise labial frenum?

Simple excision technique

Wide V-shape incision

Z-plasty

All of the above

482. What are the symptoms and signs of ankylogpossia (tongue-tie)?

Heart shape or Omega shape of the tip of the tongue when trying to protrude the tongue out

Unclear speech

Limited tongue movement and difficult in swallowing

All of the above

483. What are vital structures below the lingual frenum?

Lingual artery

Lingual vein

Opening of submandibular salivary duct

All of the above

484. How to perform surgical removal of torus mandibularis?

Alveolar crest incision along premolar region & gentle exposure of the torus via a lingual flap

Raise two sided flap

Surgical reduction of torus by using burr & chisel

Debridement & primary closure

485. What is the surgical technique to remove hyperplastic maxillary tuberosity?

Raise three-sided flap

Make a Y-shape flap

Make an elliptical excision of crestal mucosa

Make a V-shape incision

486. How do you perform extraction socket augmentation?

Perform atraumatic extraction

Irrigation with saline or chlorhexidine

Socket decortication wtih round bur

Apply bone graft and membrane

All of the above

487. Which one of the following in NOT the extra-oral examination in management of dento-alveolar injury?

Facial asymmetry

Facial contusion

Facial lacerations

Haematoma in the floor of the mouth

488. What is the primary purpose of our treatment of dental injury?

To do the root canal treatment

To keep the pulp vital

To do pulpotomy

To prevent ankylosis

489. In luxation injuries such as concussion, subluxation, and extrusion the pulp vitality test is done in:

Two weeks

Three weeks

Four weeks

Five weeks

490. What is the effect of rigid splinting?

Promote good periodontal healing

Does not promote healing

Promote apexification

Does not cause ankylosis

491. What is the effect of flexible splinting?

Allows physiologic movement of the teeth in order to minimize ankylosis

Does not allow teeth to move

Often cause ankylosis

Can cause rapid loss of teeth

492. Which of ONE the following is the best semi-rigid or flexible splint?

0 .028 gauge orthodontic wire

4-6# fishing line

Titanium trauma splint

Composite

493. How long does it take to treat lateral subluxation injury with flexible splint?

2 - 4 weeks

3 - 6 weeks

4 - 8weeks

6 - 10 weeks

494. How do you treat intrusion injury of teeth with closed apex?

Orthodontic treatment

Surgical repositioning

Root canal treatment in 1 - 3 weeks

All of the above

495. What is the critical extra-oral dry time of an avulsed tooth?

15 - 30 seconds

30 - 60 seconds

15 - 30 minutes

30 - 60 minutes

496. What can you do if the avulsed tooth was left out over 60 seconds dry time?

Remove remnants of PDL by soaking in acid for 1”

Soak in Stannous Fl for 5”

RCT as soon as possible

Splint

All of the above

497. What happens if the avulsed tooth is out of the mouth over 60 seconds and not stored properly?

Root resorption and probable loss

The tooth can be splinted with good outcome

The tooth should not be splinted

Root resorption and probable loss and The tooth should not be splinted

498. What is the prognosis for survival and revascularization of an avulsed tooth which is not out of the mouth for over 60 seconds?

Poor

Fair

Good (or possible)

Excellent

499. What are the First Aid instructions for avulsed teeth?

Handle by crown only

Pick off debris with tweezers

Replant tooth if possible

Transport in appropriate medium (saliva or milk)

All of the above

500. What are the in-office treatment procedures for an avulsed tooth?

Gently clean the socket

Replant and check occlusion

Splint

Prescribe antibiotics and analgesics

All of the above

501. What are the prohibitions (not to do) for an avulsed tooth?

Handle by root

Scrub root

Allow tooth to dry

Submerge the tooth in water

All of the above

502. Which one of the following is NOT the storage medium for avulsed teeth?

Patient own saliva

Pasteurised whole milk

Tab water

Saline

503. What are the other types of splints apart from semi-rigid or flexible splint?

Acid-etched composite splinting

Interdental wiring

Vaccum-formed plastic splint

Arch bare splint

All of the above

504. How long does it take to stabilize or splint a mobile tooth?

4 - 6 days

2 - 3 weeks

7 - 10 days

2 - 4 months

505. How long does it take to stabilize or splint a tooth displacement?

10 - 15 days

2 - 3 weeks

4 - 8 weeks

3 - 6 months

506. How long does it take to stabilize or splint a root fracture tooth?

2 - 4 months

2 - 6 weeks

6 - 8 weeks

5 - 7 months

507. How long does it take to stabilize or splint an avulsed tooth?

2 - 6 weeks

1 - 3 months

4 - 6 months

7 - 10 days

508. How long does it take to stabilize an alveolar fracture?

2 - 3 weeks

2 - 4 months

4 to 6 weeks

10 - 15 days

509. What are the clinical features of alveolar fracture?

Stepped deformity and palpable fracture

Derangement of occlusion and Mobile teeth

Lacerations / bruising / haematoma of mucosa or gingiva

Visible fracture line through torn mucosa

All of the above

510. What are the temporary stabilization methods for alveolar fracture?

Barton’s bandage

Wire/composite or orthodontic brackets

Simple “bridle” wire or Ivy loops/Continuous loops

Arch bars or lingual/occlusal or “Gunning” splints

All of the above

511. Which of the following is NOT the indication for closed reduction?

Non displaced and favourable fractures

Displaced and unfavourable fractures

Grossly communited fractures

Edentulous atrophic mandible

Fractures in children

512. What is the correct size of Ivy eyelet wire?

16 gauge

20 gauge

26 gauge

36 gauge

513. What are the adjunctive treatments of alveolar fracture?

Hydration and nutrition

Antibiotics

Check tetanus status

All of the above

514. Which ONE of the following conditions that antibiotic is not given?

All fractures through dentate region/open fractures

Tooth crown fracture without pulp involvement

Fractures in the sinus

Contaminated/old injuries

515. What are the pitfalls for MMF of jaw fractures?

Injury to buccal mucosa and lips

Interdental wires become loose and ineffective because of poor placement

MMF is ineffective if too few teeth are secured

All of the above

516. Which cases of dento-alveolar fractures antibiotic is needed?

All fractures through dentate region/open fracture

Fractures in sinus

Dirty/old injuries

All of the above

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