Immunology exam final retake 2022:

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Immunology Exam Review Quiz

Test your knowledge with our Immunology Exam Review Quiz designed for students preparing for their final exams. This quiz consists of 27 questions that cover key concepts in immunology, including immunodeficiencies, hypersensitivity reactions, autoimmunity, and more.

Perfect for anyone looking to reinforce their understanding of immunological principles and applications, it offers:

  • Multiple-choice questions
  • Detailed answer options
  • A comprehensive review of core topics
27 Questions7 MinutesCreated by ExploringCells15
Choose false about immunodeficiencies:
Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) represents the most common disorder among primary immunodeficiencies.
Humoral immunity deficiencies are typically characterized by several fungal infections.
Anti HIV antibodies represent the most efficient immune mechanism against HIV infection.
Thrombocytopenia represents a component of Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome (WAS).
Bruton's agammaglobulinemia is characterized by complete lack of mature B lymphocytes and consequently complete lack of the antibodies.
Choose true about anti-tumor immunity:
Tumors induce different sorts of immunity.
Local immune tolerance dominates in the local tumor microenvironment.
Tumors represent the source of different antigens.
Tumor associated antigens are used in the clinical diagnostics and treatment monitoring.
Immunotherapy is applied in tumor treatment.
Choose true about indirect immunofluorescence:
This is used to detect the antigens in the serum.
This is used to detect the antigens in the tissue sample.
This is used to assess the level of complement components.
This involves fluorescent markers.
This involves enzymatic markers.
Which of the following represents the differentiation marker for B cells?
CD4
CD8
CD3
CD56
CD19
Which of the following represent phagocytosis deficiency?
Chronic granulomatous disease (CGD)
SCID
Di George syndrome
Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
Nijmegen syndrome
Choose true about type I hypersensitivity:
It results from atopy which never reveals clinically
Histamine represents one of the preformed mediators responsible for clinical symptoms.
Anaphilactic reaction never appears as one of the clinical forms.
Desensitizations aims at decreasing of IgG level and increasing IgE instead
Only flow cytometry is used in the diagnostics.
Neutrophiles activation and therefor elevated neutophiles levels in the peripheral blood can result from:
Viral infection
Bacterial infection
Contact dematitis
Allergy
Parasitic infection
Choose which is characterized by the following features: represents membrane derived complement inhibitors, inhibits C3 and C5 convertase.
CD59
H factor
DAF
C1 inhibitor
CR1
Choose the correct connection between the tumor and the relevant antigen.
AFP- prostatic cancer
CEA- multiple myeloma
HPV- Burkitt lymphoma
PSA- Colorectal cancer
CA125- Ovarian cancer
Which of the cells population is characterized by the following features? These represent 2-4% of white blood cells These ingest acid marker, reveal red granules and double-lobbed (glasses like) nucleus. Produce major basic protein (MBP) Represent weak phagocytic activity These elevate on the course of allergied and parasitic infections.
Monocytes
Neutrophiles
Macrophages
Eosinophiles
Lymphocytes
Which of the following appear in the course of systemic scleroderma?
AMA, ASMA, LKM, SLA
ACA, Scl70
ANCA, ACA, ANA, APCA
ASMA, anty SSB
PLAR, anty GBM
Choose false about phagocytosis:
Chameotaxis is not involved
C3a and C5a represent chaemotactic agents.
Peptidoglican belonges to PRR recognized by PAMPs.
Intracellular killing represents the final stage
Antibodies enhance phagocytosis
Choose correct about autoimmune diseases:
Organ specific antibodies are present in the course of Graves´disease.
Pernicious anaemia is treated with lifelong B12 vitamine administration.
Hashimoto disease results from hypersenistivity type II
Autoantibodies are used in diagnostics of Hashimoto disease.
Systemic autoimmune diseases result from hypersensitivity type II.
The kidney donor is having the following HLA: A- *01, 03; B- *08, *19; DR- *05,*12. In virtual PRA, the recipient expresses anti HLA4 antibodies (MFI 18956) and anti HLA 10 antibodies (MFI 2357). Choose correct:
These anti HLA antibodies can be recognized as DSA.
These anti HLA antibodies are not DSA.
Virtual cross-match is negative.
Virtual cross-match is positive.
The recipient is qualified for the next stage of matching
Choose inncorect about biological cross-match.
This is performed repeteadly (every 3 months)
This is performed once before transplantation
The aim is to assess the alloim,unization level of the society.
The aim is to asses the existence of anti donor´s HLA antibodies in the recipient
The lymphocytes are obtained from 30 inrelated idividuals.
Choose true about interferones:
Typ II interferone is produced by the cells infected with the virus
Type I interferones inhibit viral replication inside the infected cells.
Type II interferone activated macrophages.
Type I interferones are produced by activated T cells
Type II interferone inhibits Th2 cells.
Choose true about type IV hypersensitivity:
This is typically Th1- dependent.
Macrophages represent the major effectory cells.
Complement components decrease is characteristic for the chronic inflammation present in the course of hypersensitivity.
This is a reaction to M. Tuberculosis infection.
It represents an example of sudden allergic reactions.
Choose false about antibodies:
IgD are crucial for phagocytosis effciency
IgM are secreted to mucoses
IgG4 do not activate complement
IgG represent 80% of serum antibodies
IgE contribute antiparasitic response
Choose correct about di George syndrome:
This is related to B lymphocytes deficiency
This related to T cells deficiency
This is related to NADPH oxidase inhibition
This related to thymus hyperplasia
The acronym is CATCH 22
Which type of cytokine is secreted by activated Th1?
II-2
II-10
II-4
TGF-beta
Perforins and granzymes
Specific phagocytosis is mediated by:
Fc receptors on phagocyte
Scavenger receptors on the bacterial cell
Toll-like receptors on the bacterial cell
PAMP receptors on the phagocytes
PRR receptors
Choose the most appropriate donor for the following recipient and prove your choose by HLA compatibility calculation. The donor: HLA A-*02,*03; B-*07, *08: DR- *01, *05 The recipients: HLA A- *01, *02; B- *07, *15; DR- *01, *16 HLA A- *02, *07; B-*04,*06; DR- *01, *05 HLA A- *02, *03; B-*07,*08; DR- *02, *03 HLA A- *01, *03; B-*07,*44; DR- *12, *15 HLA A- *04, *09; B-*07,*08; DR- *01, *05
Recipient 1, 17 pts.
Recipient 2, 22 pts.
Recipient 3, 14 pts.
Recipient 4, 7 pts.
Recipient 5, 30 pts.
Which class of antibodies is transported across the placenta?
IgA
IgG
IgD
IgE
IgM
Which cells are not APC?
Follicular dendritic cells
Neutrophils
Eosinophils
Langerhans cells
Increased level of specific IgM may indicate:
Recent infection
Immunity
Chronic infection
Reinfection
Persistent infection
The secondary specific humoral response in relation to the primary is characterized by:
Higher level of produced antibodies
Higher specificity of antibodies
Faster reaction
Predominance of IgG antibodies
Positive lupus band test, anti-dsDNA antibodies and LE cells are characteristic for the following autoimmune disease
Rheumatoid arthritis
Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
Goodpasture syndrome
Sjogren syndrome
Dermatomyositis
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